ThatQuiz
|
Test Library
|
Take this test now
NCM 118 Semi Finals BSN-C - Quiz
  • 1. 1.
    A 58-year-old male presents with hematemesis and melena. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and pulse is 120 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Start IV fluid resuscitation
B) Administer proton pump inhibitor
C) Prepare for endoscopy
D) Insert a nasogastric tube
  • 2. 2.
    The nurse is caring for a patient with an upper GI bleed. The nasogastric tube returns bright red blood. What does this finding indicate?
A) Bleeding from lower GI
B) Ongoing active bleeding
C) Normal NG output
D) Bleeding has stopped
  • 3. 3.
    After endoscopy for bleeding ulcers, the patient reports black tarry stools. What is the nurse’s interpretation?
A) Upper GI bleeding is resolving
B) Normal finding post-endoscopy
C) Rebleeding from ulcer site
D) New onset of lower GI bleed
  • 4. 4.
    A patient with GI bleeding is scheduled for blood transfusion. Which assessment finding requires immediate attention?
A) Temperature 37°C
B) BP 110/70 mmHg
C) Crackles in lungs after transfusion
D) Pulse 88 bpm
  • 5. 5.
    During octreotide infusion for variceal bleeding, the nurse observes bradycardia. What is the best nursing action?
A) Stop infusion and notify physician
B) Decrease IV fluids
C) Give atropine
D) Continue infusion
  • 6. 6.
    A trauma patient with massive fluid resuscitation has tense abdomen and decreased urine output. What is the nurse’s priority?
A) Elevate the head of the bed
B) Provide pain relief
C) Measure bladder pressure
D) Administer diuretics
  • 7. 7.
    What parameter best reflects intra-abdominal pressure?
A) Mean arterial pressure
B) Bladder pressure
C) Central venous pressure
D) Gastric residual volume
  • 8. 8.
    A patient with intra-abdominal hypertension has decreased cardiac output. What is the underlying cause?
A) Increased venous return
B) Increased intrathoracic pressure
C) Compression of inferior vena cava
D) Vasodilation
  • 9. 9.
    What is the initial management of mild intra-abdominal hypertension?
A) Optimize fluid balance and positioning
B) Start vasopressors
C) insert chest tube
D) Immediate surgical decompression
  • 10. 10.
    In abdominal compartment syndrome, which nursing assessment finding is most alarming?
A) Urine output 15 mL/hr
B) Respiratory rate 18/min
C) Soft abdomen
D) Heart rate 90 bpm
  • 11. 11.
    A patient with liver failure has confusion and flapping tremor (asterixis). What should the nurse suspect?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hepatic encephalopathy
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypoglycemia
  • 12. 12.
    Which lab result is consistent with liver failure?
A) Increased albumin
B) Elevated ALT and AST
C) Decreased ammonia
D) Decreased bilirubin
  • 13. 13.
    A patient with liver failure has ascites. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Encourage high-sodium diet
B) Encourage deep breathing
C) Restrict fluids
D) Position in high Fowler’s
  • 14. 14.
    After paracentesis, what is the most important nursing action?
A) Check bowel sounds
B) Record urine output
C) Monitor blood pressure
D) Document color of fluid
  • 15. 15.
    The nurse should withhold lactulose if the patient exhibits which symptom?
A) Severe diarrhea
B) Mild abdominal pain
C) Drowsiness
D) Two soft stools per day
  • 16. 16.
    A patient with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which finding indicates a serious complication?
A) Nausea
B) Vomiting
C) Grey-Turner’s sign
D) Fever
  • 17. 17.
    Which lab result supports the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
A) Decreased lipase
B) Elevated amylase and lipase
C) Low WBC count
D) Low bilirubin
  • 18. 18.
    What is the priority nursing intervention in acute pancreatitis?
A) Maintain NPO status
B) Administer insulin
C) Provide low-fat diet
D) Encourage oral fluids
  • 19. 19.
    Which electrolyte imbalance is common in pancreatitis?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypomagnesemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyperkalemia
  • 20. 20.
    Which position best relieves pain in acute pancreatitis?
A) Trendelenburg
B) Prone
C) Supine
D) Left side-lying with knees flexed
  • 21. 21.
    A diabetic patient arrives with fruity odor breath and Kussmaul respirations. What is the priority action?
A) Start insulin drip
B) Begin IV fluids
C) Administer bicarbonate
D) Prepare for dialysis
  • 22. 22.
    Which lab result confirms DKA?
A) Blood glucose 180 mg/dL
B) Serum ketones positive
C) pH 7.45
D) HCO₃ 24 mEq/L
  • 23. 23.
    Which electrolyte must be monitored closely during insulin therapy in DKA?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium
  • 24. 24.
    Which sign indicates effective management of DKA?
A) Decreasing ketones and glucose
B) Dry mucous membranes
C) Fruity odor persists
D) Increased urine output
  • 25. 25.
    The nurse should administer insulin infusion until:
A) D. IV fluids completed
B) C. pH returns to normal
C) A. Ketones disappear
D) B. Glucose < 200 mg/dL and patient can eat
  • 26. 26.
    An elderly type 2 diabetic is admitted with dehydration and glucose of 700 mg/dL, no ketones. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) A. DKA
B) B. HHNK
C) D. SIADH
D) C. Hypoglycemia
  • 27. 27.
    What is the primary cause of HHNK?
A) B. Insulin overdose
B) A. Infection or dehydration
C) C. Excess carbohydrate intake
D) D. Hypokalemia
  • 28. 28.
    Which intervention is most important in initial management of HHNK?
A) A. Administer IV insulin bolus
B) C. Start antibiotics
C) B. Rehydrate with IV fluids
D) D. Provide potassium supplements
  • 29. 29.
    What differentiates HHNK from DKA?
A) C. pH value
B) B. Level of glucose
C) A. Presence of ketones
D) D. All of the above
  • 30. 30.
    A nurse identifies decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes in a HHNK patient. What should the nurse expect?
A) C. Hypoglycemia
B) B. Fluid overload
C) A. Fluid volume deficit
D) D. Acidosis
  • 31. 31.
    A patient with acute renal failure has urine output of 200 mL/24 hrs. What phase is this?
A) D. Initial
B) B. Oliguric
C) C. Recovery
D) A. Diuretic
  • 32. 32.
    Which lab finding indicates renal failure?
A) C. Low potassium
B) B. Increased BUN and creatinine
C) D. High GFR
D) A. Decreased creatinine
  • 33. 33.
    In chronic renal failure, which diet is most appropriate?
A) A. High protein
B) B. Low potassium and phosphorus
C) D. High fluid intake
D) C. High sodium
  • 34. 34.
    The nurse monitors which ECG change for hyperkalemia in renal failure?
A) C. U waves
B) D. Flat P waves
C) A. ST depression
D) B. Peaked T waves
  • 35. 35.
    Which medication helps remove potassium in renal failure?
A) A. Kayexalate
B) C. Spironolactone
C) B. Lasix
D) D. Mannitol
  • 36. 36.
    A trauma patient presents with BP 80/50 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, cool clammy skin. What type of shock is this?
A) D. Anaphylactic
B) A. Cardiogenic
C) B. Hypovolemic
D) C. Neurogenic
  • 37. 37.
    What is the first nursing action in hypovolemic shock?
A) D. Draw labs
B) A. Administer vasopressors
C) C. Give oxygen
D) B. Start IV fluids
  • 38. 38.
    In septic shock, which finding indicates early stage?
A) C. Bradycardia
B) A. Cold clammy skin
C) D. Hypothermia
D) B. Bounding pulse
  • 39. 39.
    Which lab test confirms septic shock?
A) B. Increased sodium
B) A. Blood culture positive
C) D. Elevated calcium
D) C. Decreased BUN
  • 40. 40.
    The most reliable indicator of adequate tissue perfusion in shock is:
A) C. Blood pressure
B) D. Capillary refill
C) B. Urine output
D) A. Skin color
  • 41. 41.
    Which of the following meets SIRS criteria?
A) A. Temp 38.5°C, HR 100, WBC 15,000
B) C. RR 14, WBC 5,000
C) D. BP 120/80
D) B. Temp 36°C, HR 70
  • 42. 42.
    What is the primary trigger for SIRS?
A) C. Hypoglycemia
B) D. Hypertension
C) B. Dehydration
D) A. Infection or tissue injury
  • 43. 43.
    MODS is characterized by:
A) B. Single organ failure
B) A. Dysfunction of two or more organ systems
C) C. Mild infection
D) D. Local inflammation only
  • 44. 44.
    A patient with MODS develops jaundice, oliguria, and confusion. What does this indicate?
A) C. Dehydration
B) B. Multisystem involvement
C) D. Stable condition
D) A. Improvement
  • 45. 45.
    Nursing priority in SIRS management is:
A) A. Early identification and treatment of infection
B) B. Fluid restriction
C) C. Oxygen removal
D) D. High-protein diet
  • 46. 46.
    In MODS, which intervention prevents further organ injury?
A) A. Maintain oxygenation and perfusion
B) C. Stop antibiotics
C) B. Limit IV fluids
D) D. Withhold nutrition
  • 47. 47.
    Which assessment finding indicates progression from SIRS to MODS?
A) A. Stable BP and urine output
B) C. Warm, dry skin
C) D. Mild fever
D) B. Decreasing LOC and urine output
  • 48. 48.
    Which laboratory marker is typically elevated in SIRS/MODS?
A) D. Glucose
B) A. C-reactive protein (CRP)
C) C. Sodium
D) B. Hematocrit
  • 49. 49.
    The nurse monitors for which complication in MODS?
A) C. Dehydration
B) B. Hyperthyroidism
C) A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) D. Hypoglycemia
  • 50. 50.
    What is the ultimate goal in managing SIRS and MODS?
A) A. Prevent sepsis and maintain organ perfusion
B) B. Restrict fluids
C) D. Lower WBC count
D) C. Decrease urine output
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.