ISMANA (Finals) - Quiz
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Pilferage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Avoidance
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Pilferage
D) Vandalism
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Moving Attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Driver Rule
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Advance Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Module Operandi
D) Novice Criminal
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Expressiveness
C) Pleasantness
D) Slang usage
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Creation of laws
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) There are not enough languages
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) All codes and acronyms
B) High-pitched voices
C) Long pauses
D) Slang and unnatural language
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Messaging security
C) Audio hailer
D) Walkie-talkies
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Written language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
B) The tool used to write
C) The tone of a person's voice
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Boosting sales
C) Training new recruits
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Supplier delays
C) Competitor activity
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A routine fire drill
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Staff scheduling
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Security briefing
C) Fire inspection
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To evaluate marketing strategies
C) To hire new security staff
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Loud and clear
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Radio check
B) Copied message
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Location
C) Copied message
D) Repeat message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Copied message
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Location
C) Loud and clear
D) Receiving poorly
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
C) Proceed and locates the witnesses
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Render obedience and proper conduct
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Plaster cast
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates and capture perpetrator
B) Interview the company
C) Locates the identifies the witnesses
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Indirect Approach
C) Interview and locates the offender
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Morse code
C) Methods of investigation
D) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the crime scene
B) Interrogate the people
C) Interrogate everyone
D) Interrogate the suspect/offender
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all
C) Note the important things
D) Note all happen
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the people
B) Arrange for the collection of evidence
C) Arrange of the following statements
D) Arrange
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the offender
B) Reports the incident fully and accurately
C) Report me
D) Reports everyone
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the following individuals
B) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
C) Yields the following statements
D) Yields the conducting regular inspections
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