A) Interrogation B) Elicitation C) Interview D) Cross-examination
A) Both are the same under Philippine law. B) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest. C) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral D) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
A) Logical approach B) Coercive technique C) Emotional appeal D) Direct approach
A) Right against unreasonable search B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to bail D) Right to privacy
A) Under oath and notarized B) Before the barangay captain C) In writing and in the presence of a police officer D) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
A) Chain of custody rule B) Miranda Doctrine C) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine D) Rule on res gestae
A) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed B) To protect the investigator from liability C) To make the suspect feel guilty D) To shorten the process of interrogation
A) Admission B) Res gestae C) Dying declaration D) Confession
A) The declarant believed death was imminent. B) The declarant was under police custody C) The statement was in writing. D) The declaration was made before a lawyer
A) Doctrine of finality B) Principle of truthfulness C) Doctrine of dying declaration D) Rule of Res Gestae
A) Admissions B) Res gestae C) Confessions D) Independent relevant statements
A) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime B) A suspect’s confession to police C) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant D) A doctor’s report describing injuries
A) It was made after prolonged questioning B) It was made in private C) It was written in English D) It was made without counsel
A) Investigative interview B) Cognitive interview C) Coercive interview D) Structured interview
A) Confess guilt B) Create a timeline C) Guess what happened D) Recall events from different perspectives
A) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present B) Signed before an ordinary witness C) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing D) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
A) Inadmissible B) Conditional C) Admissible D) Partially admissible
A) They are synonymous in criminal law B) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after. C) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts. D) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
A) The number of witnesses B) The investigator’s experience C) The seriousness of the crime D) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
A) Continue the questioning B) Detain the suspect longer C) Use persuasion D) Stop the interrogation immediately
A) Cross-Examination Approach B) Cognitive Interview C) Structured Interview D) Narrative Method
A) Repetition technique B) Emotional appeal C) Theme development D) Silence technique
A) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest B) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants D) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
A) The confession remains admissible B) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible C) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration D) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
A) It must be in writing B) It must be expressed and categorical C) It must be voluntary D) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
A) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality B) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible C) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer D) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
A) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver B) Admissible because it was later confirmed C) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence D) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
A) Dying declaration B) Admission C) Independent relevant statement D) Part of res gestae
A) Voluntariness and legality B) Opportunity and impartiality C) Materiality and spontaneity D) Necessity and trustworthiness
A) Tacit confession B) Extrajudicial confession C) Qualified admission D) Judicial admission
A) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances B) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor C) Deception invalidates all statements D) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
A) Admission against interest B) Confession C) Dying declaration D) Res gestae statement
A) Coerced confession B) Admissible due to continuous questioning C) Valid under implied waiver doctrine D) Voluntary admission
A) test the validity of gathered evidence B) To obtain a confession C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime D) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
A) Independent relevant statement B) Hearsay C) Confession D) Admission
A) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement B) The declarant must die immediately after the statement C) The declarant must believe death is inevitable D) The declaration must be in written form
A) Inadmissible for being involuntary B) Valid if re-affirmed later C) Admissible only as corroborative evidence D) Admissible because counsel was present
A) Cognitive interviewing B) Narrative reconstruction C) Hypnosis technique D) Investigative visualization
A) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation B) Admissible as corroborative evidence C) Admissible only in part D) Admissible in full
A) Admission against interest B) Inadmissible hearsay C) Confession D) Dying declaration
A) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning B) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked C) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely D) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
A) Question-and-answer phase B) Termination phase C) Preparation phase D) Approach phase
A) Extracting confession through pressure B) Use of psychological manipulation C) Rapid confessional tactics D) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
A) Encouraging voluntary cooperation B) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely C) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction D) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
A) Physical pressure B) Emotional appeal and sympathy C) Deception and bluffing D) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
A) Cognitive interrogation B) Preliminary interview C) Cross-examination D) Investigative debriefing
A) Inadmissible for being post-consultation B) Considered res gestae C) Admissible in evidence D) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
A) Intimidate the suspect to confess B) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Gather information without accusation D) Obtain physical evidence
A) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death B) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator C) The declarant must be under oath D) The declarant must identify the killer
A) Admission B) Confession C) Independent relevant statement D) Res gestae
A) The value of the property stolen B) The number of offenders C) The use or threat of violence or intimidation D) The intent to gain
A) Tracing the stolen property B) Filing the case immediately C) Conducting a background check on the victim D) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
A) Suspect profiling B) Crime scene reconstruction C) Evidence collection D) Intelligence gathering
A) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not. B) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not C) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings. D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
A) CCTV footage B) Property inventory C) Confession of the accused D) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
A) Qualified theft B) Estafa C) Robbery D) Carnapping
A) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally B) Without violence but with intent to gain C) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain D) With violence or intimidation only
A) Life imprisonment B) Death by lethal injection C) Reclusion temporal D) Reclusion perpetua to death
A) Trace ownership and vehicle identity B) Identify the manufacturer C) Determine insurance status D) Locate the driver
A) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen B) Only those who steal cars C) Those who physically steal property D) Those who report stolen property
A) The act of concealing the property B) The ownership of the property C) The absence of intent to gain D) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
A) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR) B) Insurance policy C) Driver’s license D) Sales invoice
A) The property is found hidden B) The accused buys property from a store C) The accused was seen near the crime scene D) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
A) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods B) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce C) Punish the original thief D) Reduce robbery incidents
A) Payment of recruitment fees B) Recruitment for legal overseas work C) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion D) Use of minors in employment
A) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability B) Allowing voluntary prostitution C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only D) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
A) Reducing penalties for traffickers B) Increasing fines C) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction D) Limiting law enforcement authority
A) Immediate deportation B) Protection and rehabilitation of victims C) Aggressive interrogation D) Media exposure
A) Exploitation of prostitution B) Adoption following legal procedures C) Forced labor D) Debt bondage
A) Layering B) Structuring C) Integration D) Placement
A) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin B) Investing clean money C) Reporting suspicious transactions D) Depositing the proceeds
A) Authorities freeze the assets B) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses C) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts D) The launderer hides the funds abroad
A) Allow anonymous foreign accounts B) Regulate pawnshops C) Encourage secret banking D) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
A) Exempt institutions B) Covered persons under AMLA C) Charitable organizations D) Non-reporting entities
A) Layered transaction B) Suspicious transaction C) Threshold transaction D) Covered transaction
A) Gross negligence B) A criminal violation under AMLA C) No liability if unintentional D) Administrative offense only
A) Department of Justice B) Securities and Exchange Commission C) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas D) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
A) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain B) Identifying the victim’s negligence C) Establishing the suspect’s income D) Checking bank accounts
A) Recovery of stolen property only B) Studying the suspect’s financial background C) Conducting digital forensics D) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
A) The victim’s wealth B) Modus operandi and deceit pattern C) Suspect’s criminal record D) Place of transaction only
A) No consequence B) Forfeiture of insurance claims C) Administrative sanction D) Presumption of involvement in the crime
A) Theft B) Fencing C) Estafa D) Carnapping
A) The account balance is low B) The account is new C) The depositor is a senior citizen D) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
A) Paper and digital transaction audit B) Witness interviews C) Bank advertisements D) News reports
A) International cooperation and evidence tracing B) Political influence C) Media pressure D) Lack of police equipment
A) Theft B) Robbery C) Estafa D) Carnapping
A) The monetary value of the property stolen B) Use of deception or false pretenses C) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation D) Relationship between victim and offender
A) Financial and documentary audit B) Physical evidence collection at the scene C) Property recovery operation D) Vehicle tracing system
A) Documentary and bank receipts B) Vehicle registration documents C) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints D) Computer logs and online records
A) Eyewitness testimony B) DNA evidence C) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
A) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner B) When the vehicle leaves the city or province C) When the vehicle is sold to another person D) When the owner reports the loss
A) Robbery B) Simple carnapping C) Theft D) Qualified carnapping
A) Amount of profit derived from the property B) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence C) Ownership of stolen property by the fence D) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
A) Fencing B) Theft by negligence C) Innocent purchase D) Estafa
A) Collection of firearms evidence B) Accounting audit of business operations C) Vehicle tracing through LTO database D) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
A) Employment abroad B) Violation of labor regulations C) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old D) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
A) R.A. 10883 B) R.A. 10364 C) R.A. 9208 D) P.D. 1612
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims B) Reclassification of all victims as offenders C) Repatriation without consent D) Immunity of recruiters
A) Placement B) Concealment C) Integration D) Layering
A) Placement B) Structuring C) Integration D) Layering |