ISMANA (Finals) CABS - Quiz
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Sabotage
D) Subversion
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Vandalism
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The frequency of threat attempts
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Close in Security
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Ambush attack
D) Modus Operandi
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Module Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Novice Criminals
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Modus Operandi
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Expressiveness
C) Pleasantness
D) Slang usage
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Speak continuously without pause
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
B) Creation of laws
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People are talking too much
D) People still fail to understand one another
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) Long pauses
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Audio hailer
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) The tool used to write
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Boosting sales
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) External cyber attacks
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A financial audit of company assets
D) A routine fire drill
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Develop alternatives
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Staff scheduling
C) Background checks
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Emergency drill
C) Security survey
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
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