Introduction to Philippines criminal system - Quiz
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) Citizen’s arrest rule
C) Probable cause rule
D) In flagrante delicto rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to due process
E) Right to travel
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a new complaint
B) File a case with the Ombudsman
C) Seek mandamus from RTC
D) Appeal to the DOJ
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea bargaining
C) Right to presumption of innocence
D) Right to confrontation
E) Right to counsel
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Pre-trial agreement
B) Conditional pardon
C) Plea bargaining
D) Plea in abeyance
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Rule on double jeopardy
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Requirement of promulgation
D) Requisite of written judgment
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Correct Answer: C
C) Probation
D) Parole
E) Pardon
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Isolation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Punishment
E) Retribution
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Citizen’s initiative
C) Community policing
D) Social control
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reconciliation
B) Reformation
C) Reintegration
D) Reintegration
E) Rehabilitation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Hot pursuit arrest
E) Arbitrary arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to privacy
E) Due process
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid under plain view doctrine
C) Invalid; no warrant
D) Valid if with barangay clearance
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Inadmissible in evidence
B) Inadmissible in evidence
C) Admissible if voluntary
D) Admissible if signed
E) Needs corroboration only
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Command responsibility
B) Professional integrity
C) Chain of custody
D) Professional integrity
E) Discretionary authority
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Illegal arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Preventive detention
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
B) Secure new warrant
C) Report but leave items
D) Ignore; not in warrant
E) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Violation of RA 9745
B) Physical injuries
C) . Grave coercion
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
C) Officer disciplined only
D) Evidence still valid
E) Drugs returned to PDEA
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Justified self-defense
B) Abuse of authority
C) Abuse of authority
D) Lawful arrest procedure
E) Instinctive reaction
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Valid; fruits of crime
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Valid if authenticated
E) Admissible after consent
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Grounds for demotion only
B) Valid if crime serious
C) Arrest void
D) Arrest void
E) Simple irregularity
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Suppress new evidence
B) Continue filing against original suspect
C) Amend complaint accordingly
D) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Civil defense
B) Community policing
C) Peace negotiation
D) Private security
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case dismissed
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Accused acquitted
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Sub judice rule
C) Due process
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Waiver of objection
B) Court orders reinvestigation
C) Suspension of arraignment
D) Dismissal outright
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Sub judice rule
B) Due process
C) Professional secrecy
D) Res judicata
E) Professional secrecy
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
B) Require explanation from police
C) Prosecutor must file case anyway
D) Refer to higher DOJ authority
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) mAllow reinvestigation
B) Allow reinvestigation
C) Endorse to Ombudsman
D) Deny for being repetitive
E) File case immediately
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Ignore unless proven
B) Move for inhibition
C) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
D) File administrative case
E) Move for inhibition
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Mere hunch of crime
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Absolute proof of guilt
D) Strong suspicion based on evidence
E) Strong suspicion based on evidence
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Keep it confidential
B) Return to police and disregard
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Use it if it proves guilt
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
B) Verbal consent only
C) Prosecutor approval
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) None; automatic right
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Res judicata
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Double jeopardy
E) Forum shopping
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Police approval
B) Court’s approval
C) Automatic effect
D) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
E) Court’s approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) Ignore since unrelated
C) File case still
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Automatically dismiss
B) File immediately for delay
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) Send to court for trial
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Grave misconduct
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Bribery under RPC
D) Malfeasance
E) Dereliction of duty
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Judicial courtesy
B) Burden of proof
C) Procedural regularity
D) Prosecution’s ethical standard
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the victim is absent
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the police concur
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
B) Improper intervention
C) Valid judicial discretion
D) Evidence tampering
E) Valid judicial discretion
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Allowed since the court erred
B) Remanded for reinvestigation
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Elevated to DOJ
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Effective if promulgated
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Final after notice
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Valid if signed
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Acquit for non-appearance
B) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
C) Proceed to trial
D) Issue bench warrant for arrest
E) Dismiss case for delay
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Order reinvestigation
C) Convict for homicide
D) Dismiss case
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Ignore since confession signed
B) Admit confession if corroborated
C) Exclude confession from evidence
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Suspend trial
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Sub judice exception
B) Judicial transparency
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Nothing; penalty already imposed
B) Refer to prosecutor
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Ignore unless appealed
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Valid
B) Void
C) Suspended
D) Discretionary
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial restraint
C) Judicial impartiality
D) Administrative rules
E) Judicial discipline only
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Deferred until recapture
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Continues
D) Automatically dismissed
E) Converted to probation
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Allow if relevant
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Reopen preliminary investigation
E) Defer ruling
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Require police reinvestigation
C) Deny automatically
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Judicial discretion
B) Administrative negligence
C) Denial of speedy disposition
D) Civil liability
E) Denial of speedy disposition
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Only in civil cases
D) No, double jeopardy always applies
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if court-approved
B) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
C) Allowed under RA 9165
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Valid if voluntary
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
B) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) Automatically final
D) Discretionary
E) Valid
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Forward to Supreme Court
B) Suspend proceedings
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Automatically inhibit
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Ethical irregularity only
B) Courtesy
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Administrative oversight
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Commutation
C) Parole
D) Probation
E) Conditional pardon
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence
D) Retribution
E) Rehabilitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) Escapees
E) Habitual delinquents
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Terminate case
C) Grant commutation
D) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
E) Extend parole
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Commutation of sentence
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Parole
D) Probation
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Rehabilitation planning
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Penological screening
E) Custodial supervision
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Retributive justice
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Restorative rehabilitation
E) Deterrence
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) PNP Custodial Center
B) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
E) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Ignore for minor lapse
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Extend reporting period
D) Issue bench warrant
E) Recommend revocation of probation
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Shorten imprisonment for all
B) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
C) Replace probation
D) Impose harsher penalties
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BJMP
B) BuCor
C) DOJ
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Suspended for life
B) Dismissed and civil rights restored
C) Refiled for sentencing
D) Converted to parole
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Juvenile protection
B) Correctional segregation
C) Equal punishment
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Deny; sentence too short
E) Grant probation automatically
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Clemency
B) Credit of time served
C) Commutation
D) Benefit of parole
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Custodial punishment
B) Institutional employment program
C) Voluntary work detail
D) Administrative segregation
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 6975
C) RA 9165
D) RA 10592
E) RA 10575
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Reduction of penalty
D) Temporary release
E) Conditional pardon
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Lack of parole supervision
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Overcrowded facilities
E) Limited recreation
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Recommend to the court for approval
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Approve immediately
D) Deny automatically
E) Request police clearance
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Restitution
B) Reintegration
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reintegration
E) Correction
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Social control
D) Participatory security
E) Citizen’s watch
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Collect barangay taxes
B) Prosecute offenders
C) Settle disputes amicably
D) Settle disputes amicably
E) Impose imprisonment
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Punishment of the offender
B) Avoiding accountability
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Retribution
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Civil participation
C) Community service
D) Restorative leadership
E) Social reintegration
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Auxiliary law enforcement
B) Informal policing
C) Civil defense
D) Volunteer citizen participation
E) Auxiliary law enforcement
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime detection
B) Crime prevention and reintegration
C) Imposing penalties
D) Crime prevention and reintegration
E) Prosecution of cases
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Victim-offender mediation
B) Death penalty
C) Preventive detention
D) Life imprisonment
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Effective policing
C) Strengthened judiciary
D) Increased clearance rate
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Community
C) Court
D) Corrections
E) Prosecution
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Crime suppression
B) Conflict resolution
C) Social defense
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Frequent arrests
C) Transparency and accountability
D) Political campaigns
E) Increased penalties
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Prison budget
B) Length of sentence
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Strict surveillance
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Social defense theory
C) Preventive justice
D) Rehabilitation
E) Deterrence principle
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Joining barangay peace councils
B) Ignoring crimes
C) Withholding evidence
D) Refusing to testify
E) Joining barangay peace councils
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Labeling theory
C) Social disorganization
D) Control theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Social development approach
B) Community policing
C) Restorative intervention
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Legal punishment
C) Restorative sanction
D) Social control measure
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Relying solely on police power
B) Isolating criminals permanently
C) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
D) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
E) Increasing penalties for all crimes
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Political influence
B) Partnership in justice
C) Mutual distrust
D) Partnership in justice
E) Civil dependency
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