SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯ - Quiz
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Deontology
B) Utilitarianism
C) Egoism
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Relativism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Oo, sigurado ako!
B) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
C) Ayoko pang isipin.
D) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
E) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
B) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
C) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
D) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
E) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Principles
B) Performance
C) People
D) Policies
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Lucrative
B) Limited
C) Legitimate
D) Logical
E) Legal
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) Management agreed
B) It became profitable
C) Everyone did it
D) Only experts approved
E) It was temporary
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Personal integrity and accountability
B) System requirements
C) Security protocols
D) Stakeholder interests
E) Software standards
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Only financial impacts
B) Just technical requirements
C) Exclusively legal aspects
D) Who is affected and how
E) Limited to management
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Intent rather than impact
B) Technical rather than social
C) Impact rather than intent
D) Short-term rather than long-term
E) Financial rather than ethical
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Just investors
B) Limited to regulators
C) Exclusively competitors
D) End users, developers, clients, and society
E) Only management
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Exclusively timeline planning
B) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
C) Limited to profit calculation
D) Just budget analysis
E) Only technical evaluation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Deadlines are missed
B) A moral dilemma
C) Requirements change
D) Technical problems arise
E) Budget constraints exist
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
B) Clear guidelines
C) Proper planning
D) Resource abundance
E) Technical limitations
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Only if profitable
B) Last
C) After management approval
D) The severity of the bug
E) Based on cost
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) May be acceptable with warnings
B) Must not be ignored
C) Should be documented only
D) Can be fixed later
E) Can always be patched
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Proper planning
B) Version control
C) Code reviews
D) Following standards
E) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What is technically efficient
C) What follows standards
D) What maximizes profits
E) What meets deadlines
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is morally right or responsible
B) What meets deadlines
C) What is technically efficient
D) What the law allows or prohibits
E) What maximizes profits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Everything
B) Only financial aspects
C) Just technical performance
D) A system
E) Nothing
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Team preferences
B) Budget constraints
C) Industry trends
D) Technical requirements
E) Ethical decision frameworks
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
B) Only PLUS Model
C) Limited to PLUS Model
D) Exclusively Professional codes
E) Just Stakeholder Analysis
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
B) Only for large projects
C) Limited to experts
D) Separate from technical work
E) Abstract and optional
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Legal compliance
B) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
C) Economic decision-making
D) Technical problem-solving
E) Social relationships
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
B) Cultural traditions
C) Scientific theories
D) Natural phenomena
E) Mathematical concepts
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Limited areas
B) Every aspect of daily life
C) Only scientific fields
D) Exclusively entertainment
E) Just business applications
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Only affects experts
B) Focuses solely on efficiency
C) It remains static
D) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
E) Eliminates moral issues
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Better privacy
B) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
C) Job creation
D) Enhanced security
E) Improved equality
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Social improvements
B) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
C) Benefits of technology
D) Economic gains
E) Technical achievements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Exclusively data processing
B) Just data transmission
C) Only data storage
D) Limited to data display
E) Who owns data and how it's protected
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Just cost reduction
B) Limited to user experience
C) Only technical efficiency
D) Job impact and decision fairness
E) Exclusively speed improvement
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Device type diversity
B) Software version changes
C) Internet speed variations
D) Technology quality differences
E) Unequal access to technology
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Exclusively platform design
B) Just advertising
C) Limited to user interface
D) Content moderation and misinformation spread
E) Only user engagement
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Just speech processing
B) Only facial recognition
C) Exclusively image analysis
D) Limited to data storage
E) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Limited to content sharing
B) Only social connections
C) Exclusively user engagement
D) Data collection and privacy rights
E) Just advertising
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Hardware manufacturing
B) Network infrastructure
C) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
D) Database design
E) Software testing
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Follow strict rules
B) Maximize positive outcomes
C) Focus on traditions
D) Consider only individuals
E) Develop character
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Character development
B) Personal happiness
C) Outcome maximization
D) Duty and moral rules
E) Relationship building
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Technical efficiency
B) Cost reduction
C) Honesty and integrity
D) Profit optimization
E) Speed of delivery
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) System performance
B) Marginalized communities
C) Technical specifications
D) Development timelines
E) Financial returns
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) Only after deployment
C) Exclusively in planning
D) While creating technologies
E) Never during development
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Only current users
B) Technical progress
C) Future society
D) Innovation
E) Costs
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Hardware production
C) Software sales
D) Database management
E) Network security
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Consequentialist theory
B) Culture-based theory
C) Non-consequentialist theory
D) Character-based theory
E) Situation-based theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) Following moral rules
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) Respecting individual rights
E) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Deontology
C) Utilitarianism
D) Relativism
E) Social Contract Theory
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Social norms
B) Rules and duties
C) Character and virtues
D) Outcomes or consequences of actions
E) Intentions and motivations
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Following universal rules
B) Respecting individual rights
C) The most happiness for the most people
D) Developing virtuous character
E) Maximizing personal gain
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
B) Power and influence
C) Wealth and status
D) Knowledge and wisdom
E) Fame and recognition
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Varies by wealth
B) Differs by gender
C) Changes with age
D) Counts equally
E) Depends on social status
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Virtue ethics
B) Cultural relativism
C) Deontological principles
D) Social contract theory
E) Utilitarian decision-making
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
B) Consulting others
C) Finding another solution
D) Leaving it to fate
E) Pulling the lever to save more lives
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Respect traditions
B) Follow moral rules
C) Consider relationships
D) Develop character
E) Ignore individual rights
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Developing character
B) Respecting traditions
C) Following clear rules
D) Maintaining impartiality
E) Predicting and measuring outcomes
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Aristotle
B) Immanuel Kant
C) Jeremy Bentham
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Plato
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Set of rules regardless of consequences
B) Cultural norms
C) Character development
D) Relationship building
E) Outcome-based calculation
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Accepted by society
B) Approved by authorities
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Developed through practice
E) Universalized without contradiction
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Exploiting their weaknesses
B) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
C) Using them for personal benefit
D) Controlling their actions
E) Ignoring their needs
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Personal desire
B) Cultural norm
C) Moral duty
D) Economic benefit
E) Social expectation
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Serve society
B) Maximize happiness
C) Develop character
D) Follow traditions
E) Contradict each other
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Cultural traditions
B) Social contracts
C) Character and virtues of the individual
D) Following moral rules
E) Outcomes of actions
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) John Stuart Mill
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Aristotle
E) Plato
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Strict rule following
B) Personal gain
C) Social approval
D) Balance between deficiency and excess
E) Maximum happiness
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Maximizing pleasure
B) Gaining power
C) Following rules
D) Avoiding pain
E) Flourishing or human happiness
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Marketing expertise
B) Financial acumen
C) Technical skills
D) Courage, honesty, compassion
E) Management abilities
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Financial requirements
B) Legal contracts
C) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
D) Marketing strategies
E) Technical specifications
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Fast delivery
B) Low costs
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical excellence
E) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Technical superiority
B) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
C) Faster development
D) Lower costs
E) Better marketing
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Guide decision making in challenging situations
B) Minimize time
C) Maximize profits
D) Achieve perfection
E) Reduce risks
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Guaranteed success
B) Fewer challenges
C) No mistakes
D) More profits
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Building credibility
B) Ensuring superiority
C) Guaranteeing profits
D) Minimizing competition
E) Limiting innovation
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Technical problems
B) Resource issues
C) Budget overruns
D) Legal issues and reputation damage
E) Timeline delays
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Truthful and transparent dealings
B) Maximizing profits
C) Following procedures
D) Meeting deadlines
E) Achieving goals
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
B) Disclosing secrets
C) Sharing information
D) Ignoring privacy
E) Publicizing details
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Based on performance
B) According to position
C) With respect without bias
D) Depending on wealth
E) Based on education
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Industry norms
B) Team decisions
C) Personal preferences
D) Legal and regulatory requirements
E) Company policies only
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Market conditions
B) Others' mistakes
C) Company failures
D) Actions and outcomes
E) External factors
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Quick solutions
B) Minimal effort
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical shortcuts
E) Continuous learning and development
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Maximum discounts
B) Honest and competent services
C) Fast delivery
D) Technical perfection
E) Low prices
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) All data
B) Limited aspects
C) Personal information
D) Company secrets
E) Client interests
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Marketing oriented
B) Technically skilled
C) Sales driven
D) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
E) Financially focused
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Focusing on competition
C) Maximizing performance
D) Avoiding teamwork
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Collaboration and respect
B) Competition
C) Superiority
D) Financial success
E) Achievement
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Supporting ethical practices
B) Ignoring needs
C) Limiting cooperation
D) Maximizing gain
E) Focusing on self
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Benefiting society and community
B) Maximizing profits
C) Achieving goals
D) Reducing costs
E) Meeting deadlines
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Legal ramifications
B) Financial gains
C) Increased trust
D) Technical improvements
E) Career advancement
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Professional advancement
B) Financial success
C) Increased credibility
D) Loss of trust
E) Technical expertise
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Bonuses
B) Suspension or termination
C) Salary increases
D) Additional duties
E) Promotions
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Better performance
B) Decreased morale
C) Enhanced creativity
D) Improved collaboration
E) Increased motivation
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) User convenience
B) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
C) Financial results
D) Organizational goals
E) Technical performance
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Enhanced security
B) Technical improvements
C) Better experience
D) Increased efficiency
E) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Maximum profits
B) Technical perfection
C) Low costs
D) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Market dominance
B) Competitive advantage
C) Financial success
D) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
E) Technical superiority
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Project delivery
B) Financial management
C) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
D) Technical skills
E) Quality assurance
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Technical challenges
B) Team conflicts
C) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
D) Resource limitations
E) Communication issues
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Minimize time
B) Increase complexity
C) Reduce costs
D) Maximize profits
E) Design secure systems, conduct testing
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Ignore monitoring
B) Reduce measures
C) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
D) Minimize bandwidth
E) Maximize speed
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Unlimited access
B) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
C) Maximum collection
D) Low storage
E) Fast processing
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Maximize publications
B) Research integrity, consider impact
C) Gain prestige
D) Publish quickly
E) Secure funding
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Reduce complexity
B) Minimize costs
C) Ignore scalability
D) Failure modes, embed security
E) Maximize performance
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Increase access
B) Sensitive information, enforce control
C) Reduce backups
D) Maximize performance
E) Minimize storage
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