CDI1-FINVIN - Quiz
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Secure the conviction of the accused
B) Collect evidence for intelligence units
C) Influence the statements of witnesses
D) Ascertain facts to establish truth
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Reporting phase
B) Follow-up phase
C) Termination phase
D) Initial response phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Drafting an intelligence cycle
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Only the perpetrators
B) Individuals present before the incident
C) Persons who may testify only
D) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Timeliness
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Interrogation
C) Interview
D) Validation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Processing
C) Dissemination
D) Collection
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Arrest of suspects
B) Conversion of raw data to usable information
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Establish public visibility
C) Create fear among suspects
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Termination
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Court prosecution
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Secrecy
B) Mobility
C) Accuracy
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “When”
B) The “Who”
C) The “Why
D) The “How”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Canvassing
B) Surveillance
C) Notes
D) Photography
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Prepare defense strategies
B) Pressure them for a confession
C) Elicit firsthand observations
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Covert collection
B) Overt information
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Closing case files
B) Securing perimeter
C) Case linkage and further evidence search
D) Arresting without probable cause
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Witness credibility
B) Who
C) Why
D) Where
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Timeliness
B) Secrecy
C) Compatibility
D) Accuracy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Interview
B) Note-taking
C) Examination
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Reduce the investigator’s workload
B) Avoid the need for witnesses
C) Confuse the defense counsel
D) Provide foundation for prosecution
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Initial response
B) Prosecution phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Termination phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Counterintelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Replace photography
B) Identify the suspect immediately
C) Make a 3D reconstruction
D) Provide a scale representation of the area
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Coordination
B) Objectivity
C) Unity of direction
D) Accurate reporting
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Arrest timing
C) Source evaluation
D) Surveillance planning
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Low information value
B) Failure of planning
C) Reactive investigative strategy
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Refutation
B) Integration
C) Prior isolation
D) Exclusion
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Document reproduction
B) Rapid reporting
C) Analytical risk assessment
D) Specialized dissemination
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
C) Arrest by search warrant
D) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to silence only
B) Right to a speed disposition
C) Right to bail
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Coordinated circular movement
B) Evidence-centered searching
C) Randomized checking pattern
D) Vertical, overlapping movement
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 10022
D) R.A. 9231
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Wheel search method
B) Spotlight method
C) Outward spiral method
D) Zone search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Costudial remedy rule
C) Physical evidence doctrine
D) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Triangulation method
B) Polar coordinates
C) Baseline method
D) Rough sketching
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Warrantless arrest doctrine
B) Search and seizure procedure
C) R.A. 9745
D) R.A. 7438
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Contact surveillance
C) Tail–relay method
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
B) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
C) Replace photography
D) Substitute formal diagrams
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Administrative search
B) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
C) Search for premises
D) Consent search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 7438
B) Both A and B
C) Only search and seizure rules
D) R.A. 9745
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The outer boundaries moving inward
B) The corners of the crime scene
C) The central point moving outward
D) Random points decided by personnel
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of surveillance
B) Harmonization
C) Chain of custody
D) Physical integrity doctrine
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Gender-nuetrality principle
B) Proper search procedure
C) Administrative rule for detention
D) Necessity of force principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) A perimeter search was conducted
C) The suspect verbally consented
D) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Probable cause was independently established
B) Evidence was already in plain view
C) Consent existed
D) Crime scene was already secured
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether sketches can be made later
B) Whether multiple teams are available
C) Whether visibility is limited
D) Whether the center is identifiable
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Rely solely on photographs
B) Discard the rough sketch
C) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
D) Present both sketches and let the court decide
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the confession was spontaneous
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) Whether the officer recorded the moment
D) If the suspect already had a lawyer
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under stop-and-frisk
B) Valid under custodial rule
C) Invalid due to lack of overt act
D) Valid under warrantless arrest
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
B) Only photographs should be taken
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if voluntary
B) Invalid for lack of counsel
C) Valid if recorded
D) Valid if officer witnesses it
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether officers had a search warrant
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether suspect resisted
D) Whether consent was implied
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Random evidence retrieval
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Witness-led collection
D) Systematic crime scene search
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Finished intelligence
B) Raw information
C) Classified information
D) Discarded information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Sequence of action
B) Weapon used
C) Underlying motive
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Create confidential rumors
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Support decision-making
D) Replace investigators
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Observant and systematic
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Impulsive decision-making
D) Prioritizing personal judgment
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Tangible items related to the crim
B) Any verbal statement
C) Rumors about the suspect
D) Hearsay from neighbors
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Covert
B) Strategic
C) Publicly available
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Dissemination phase
B) Follow-up phase
C) Court presentation
D) Crime scene processing
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) All destroyed evidence
B) Every item in the area
C) Instruments of the crime
D) Personal belongings of witnesses
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Proper decision-makers
B) Only investigators
C) The suspect
D) Any available personnel
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Neighborhood canvassing
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Crime scene processing
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Opportunity
B) Modus operandi
C) Motive
D) Means
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Collect fingerprints immediately
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Conduct interrogation
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Structural intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Date and time of occurrence
B) Cause of death
C) Weather Conditions
D) Evidence collected
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Shows exact appearance
B) Replace testimony
C) Create Investigation direction
D) Locates suspect
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Identify the guilty party
B) Satisfy public demand
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Produce intelligence reports
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Scene integrity
B) Confidential materials from adversaries
C) Suspect
D) Witness credibility
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Arrest warrant
B) Judicial affidavit
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Interrogation
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Case documentation
B) Follow-up
C) Processing
D) Termination
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Surveillance
B) Sketching
C) Interrogation
D) Interview
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Structural
C) Strategic
D) Overt
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Initial response
D) Conducting termination
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Verification
C) Scene sketching
D) Motive analysis
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Coordination
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Witness evaluation
B) Pattern analysis
C) Accusation formulation
D) Case isolation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) The cardinal points
B) Surveillance
C) Note-taking
D) Deductive reasoning
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Establishing overt presence
B) Preserving cover and concealment
C) Using direct confrontation
D) Maintaining a fixed pace
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Collection
B) Processing
C) Direction
D) Dissemination
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Securing informant identity
B) Randomizing interrogation
C) Evidence substitution
D) Strategic penetration
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Interrogation technique
B) Overt documentation
C) Pattern recognition
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Classification
B) Dissemination
C) Evaluation
D) Direction
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Regular informant
B) Classified agent
C) Danger informant
D) Accidental source
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Raw sorting
B) Overclassification
C) Encoding
D) Security labeling
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Contact surveillance
D) Tail-relay method
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Planning and direction
B) Reclassification
C) Dissemination
D) Analysis
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Source validation
C) Surveillance support
D) Premature classification
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Offensive surveillance
B) Prioritization of information
C) Random selection
D) Discarding all sources
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Rational shadowing
B) Forced confrontation
C) Cover selection
D) Dual-tracking
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Strategic
B) Operational
C) Administrative
D) Background
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Witness retrieval
B) Technical surveillance
C) Indirect canvassing
D) Controlled overt collection
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Proper document disposal
B) Covert misinformation
C) Interrogation secrecy
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Improvised surveillance
B) Static intelligence
C) Fragmented tracking
D) Combined (team) surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Source reliability
B) Dissemination
C) Document security
D) Planning clarity
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to reassign the team
B) Whether to change the informant’s identity
C) If surveillance should be canceled
D) Operational utility vs. security risk
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Compartmentation principle
B) Multi-source evaluation
C) Covert collection
D) Surveillance coordination
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Hypothetical assumption
C) Source cross-validation
D) Immediate confrontation
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