CPCTES - Quiz
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To regulate the process of criminal justice
B) To punish witnesses
C) To create laws
D) To collect taxes
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Complaint
B) Verdict
C) Pleading
D) Evidence
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
B) A decision of the court
C) A lawyer’s opinion
D) A police report only
  • 4. An information is:
A) A newspaper report
B) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
C) A confession
D) A witness statement only
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Witness
B) Prosecution
C) Accused
D) Judge
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of guilt
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Presumption of liability
D) Presumption of wealth
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Sentencing
B) Trial
C) Preliminary Investigation
D) Appeal
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Strong suspicion supported by facts
B) Witness opinion only
C) Mere rumor
D) Absolute certainty
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Testimony
B) Contract
C) Fingerprint
D) Knife
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Photograph
B) Written confession only
C) Physical object
D) Oral statement made under oath
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Opinion evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Res Gestae Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Required in court
B) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
C) Always admissible
D) Always true
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Opposing counsel
B) Judge only
C) Jury
D) Witness himself
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Direct examination
B) Appeal
C) Cross-examination
D) Recall
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Fake evidence
B) Evidence requiring inference
C) Direct proof of fact
D) Documentary proof only
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) Through inference
B) Immediately and directly
C) By rumor
D) By opinion alone
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Sheriff
B) Clerk of Court
C) Bailiff
D) Prosecutor
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Arraignment
B) Appeal
C) Promulgation
D) Trial
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Request for dismissal
B) Refusal to testify
C) Denial of charge
D) Admission of charge
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Denial of the accusation
B) Waiver of trial
C) Admission of guilt
D) Acceptance of punishment
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to remain silent
B) Right to travel
C) Right to vote
D) Right to property
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Court conviction
B) Payment of fine
C) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
D) Filing a complaint
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Prosecutor
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Police officer
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Police blotter
B) Gun used in crime
C) Affidavit
D) Testimony
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Admissible
B) Expensive
C) Lengthy
D) Popular
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
B) Evidence unrelated to issue
C) Illegal evidence
D) Evidence from newspaper only
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Witness-approved
B) Very expensive
C) Publicly known
D) Legally admissible in court
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Recall examination
B) Redirect examination
C) Appeal
D) Cross-examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
B) Change testimony entirely
C) End the case
D) Attack witness credibility only
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Original document
B) Oral testimony
C) Secondary evidence
D) Rumor
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
B) Witness refuses to testify
C) Judge prefers it
D) Original exists and available
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Police investigation
B) Newspaper publication
C) Court recognizing facts without evidence
D) Witness testimony
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Age only
B) Believability or trustworthiness
C) Occupation only
D) Financial status
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Speculation
B) Direct testimony
C) Rumor
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Court order
B) Witness statement
C) The act itself
D) Reason that induces a person to act
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Presence at another place during crime
B) Mistaken identity only
C) Self-defense
D) Lack of motive
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Probable cause
B) Beyond reasonable doubt
C) Mere suspicion
D) Public opinion
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Conviction of accused
B) Arrest of accused
C) Release because guilt not proven
D) Filing of case
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Dismissal of case
B) Withdrawal of complaint
C) Finding the accused guilty
D) New trial
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to counsel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to property
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Court decision
B) Final punishment
C) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
D) Police investigation
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Court transcript
B) Testimony only
C) Police report only
D) Property or surety bond
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Convicting accused
B) Searching and seizing specific property
C) Filing complaint
D) Collecting taxes
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Judge
B) Witness
C) Police officer
D) Prosecutor
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Constitutional rights
B) Traffic rules
C) Tax laws
D) School policies
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Best evidence
B) Excluded evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Dead Man Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Body of the accused only
B) Witness affidavit
C) Fact that a crime has been committed
D) Court records
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Affidavit
B) Summons
C) Invoice
D) Receipt
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Criminal conviction
B) Sentencing
C) Civil cases
D) Appeal only
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Witness
B) Sheriff
C) Prosecutor
D) Clerk
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Dismiss case
B) Convict accused
C) Arrest immediately
D) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Payment of fine
B) Witness appearance only
C) Production of documents or objects
D) Arrest of accused
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Witness testimony
B) Payment of damages
C) Delivery of property
D) Filing of complaint
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Evidence presented and applicable law
B) Media reports
C) Public pressure
D) Personal opinion alone
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Complaint filing
B) Arrest
C) Investigation
D) Trial
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Punish witness
B) Determine guilt or innocence
C) Collect taxes
D) Write police report
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Double jeopardy
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Probable cause
D) Due process
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Paying bail twice
B) Multiple arrests for different crimes
C) Being tried twice for the same offense
D) Giving testimony twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Public opinion decides the case
B) Police decide guilt
C) Immediate punishment without hearing
D) Fair and lawful procedure
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Warrant
B) Affidavit
C) Motion to Quash
D) Verdict
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
B) Trial has not started
C) Witness disappears
D) Accused admits guilt
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Judge
B) Defense
C) Witness
D) Prosecution
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) During investigation only
B) Before complaint filing
C) After prosecution rests its case
D) Before arraignment
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion to Dismiss
B) Motion for Judgment
C) Motion to Quash
D) Motion for Continuance
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Is under 18 years old
B) Supports both parties
C) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
D) Refuses oath only
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Proof of moral traits or reputation
B) Financial records
C) Written contracts
D) Crime scene objects
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Specialized knowledge and skill
B) Rumor
C) Guesswork
D) Friendship with accused
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Character witness
B) Hostile witness
C) Ordinary witness
D) Expert witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Receipt
B) Transcript of stenographic notes
C) Police badge
D) Search warrant
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Filing appeal
B) Remaining silent
C) Posting bail
D) Giving false testimony under oath
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Conviction
B) Arraignment
C) Dismissal
D) Sentencing
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Bail is posted
B) Complaint is filed
C) Trial begins
D) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) Reinvestigate crime scene only
B) File police blotter
C) Request review of lower court decision
D) Arrest accused again
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Prosecutor
B) Sheriff
C) Clerk of Court
D) Bailiff
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Arrest order
B) Court decision
C) Written sworn testimony of witness
D) Oral testimony only
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Rule of lenity
B) Liberal construction
C) Estoppel
D) Judicial notice
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Decision
B) Complaint
C) Subpoena
D) Affidavit
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Court furniture
B) Type of penalty
C) Witness location
D) Place where the case is tried
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to information
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to travel
D) Right to property
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Hearsay
B) Res Gestae
C) Opinion evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Used by witnesses only
B) Not allowed on direct examination
C) Required during trial
D) Allowed on direct examination
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Narrative question
B) Hypothetical question
C) Leading question
D) Compound question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Compound
B) Objection: Argumentative
C) Objection: Irrelevant
D) Objection: Leading
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Double Jeopardy
B) Corpus Delicti
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Judicial Admission
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Posting bail
B) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
C) Filing complaint
D) Repeating testimony
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Hostile witness
B) Child witness
C) Character witness
D) Expert witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Privileged Communication Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Public information
B) Privileged and confidential
C) Illegal evidence
D) Hearsay only
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Investigation
B) Arraignment
C) Examination
D) Promulgation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Injunction
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Certiorari
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Primary evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Presumption of innocence
B) Rule of lenity
C) Judicial notice
D) Corpus delicti
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Warrant of arrest
B) Summons
C) Search warrant
D) Subpoena
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Sentencing
B) Redirect examination
C) Arraignment
D) Investigation
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Jurisdiction
B) Venue
C) Promulgation
D) Probable cause
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Delay cases
B) Increase penalties only
C) Protect rights and ensure justice
D) Avoid trials
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