CDI 1 MCQs - Quiz
  • 1. What is the primary goal of criminal investigation?
A) To determine the truth and identify the guilty
B) To punish the offender immediately
C) To satisfy the victim's family
D) To close the case quickly
  • 2. Which is NOT one of the three-fold aims of criminal investigation?
A) Identify the perpetrator
B) Locate and apprehend the perpetrator
C) Provide evidence to support conviction
D) Recover damages for the victim
  • 3. The three basic tools of criminal investigation are:
A) Patrol, surveillance, entrapment
B) People, money, technology
C) Police, prosecutor, court
D) Information, Interview, Instrumentation
  • 4. Information as an investigative tool refers to:
A) Data gathered from witnesses only
B) Knowledge derived from persons, records, and public sources
C) Secret documents only
D) Confessions obtained under pressure
  • 5. Interview differs from interrogation in that interview is:
A) Done to suspects only
B) Always recorded secretly
C) Questioning of persons who may or may not be involved, done in friendly atmosphere
D) Conducted without counsel
  • 6. Interrogation is conducted primarily to:
A) Get the person to restate what they know
B) Calm the witness
C) Obtain admission or confession from a suspect
D) Verify alibi's
  • 7. Instrumentation in investigation means:
A) Buying expensive equipment
B) Relying on intuition
C) Using authority to gather facts
D) Application of sciences and technical methods to detect crime
  • 8. Who among the following is the person who first arrives at the crime scene?
A) Prosecutor
B) Case investigator
C) First responder
D) Crime laboratory technician
  • 9. The very first action of the first responder at a crime scene:
A) Take photographs
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Collect evidence
D) Interview witnesses
  • 10. Chain of custody refers to:
A) Unbroken documentary record of everyone who handled evidence
B) The prison transfer form
C) The warrant used to seize items
D) The police officer guarding the suspect
  • 11. If a suspect is caught in the act of committing a crime, the arrest is:
A) Can only be done by a judge
B) Requires court approval first
C) Illegal
D) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
  • 12. A person who, without being a witness, supplies information of value to investigators on a confidential basis:
A) Victim
B) Informant
C) Accomplice
D) Suspect
  • 13. The intelligence cycle in correct sequence:
A) Collection → Planning → Processing → Dissemination
B) Processing → Planning → Dissemination → Collection
C) Dissemination → Collection → Planning → Processing
D) Planning → Collection → Processing → Dissemination
  • 14. What type of intelligence deals with personalities, their activities and associations?
A) Counter-intelligence
B) Estimate
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Line / Tactical intelligence
  • 15. Intelligence intended for long-term planning and policy making:
A) Current intelligence
B) Tactical intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 16. Covert observation of a person, place, or thing to obtain information:
A) Surveillance
B) Search
C) Raid
D) Interoggation
  • 17. Surveillance conducted on foot:
A) Stationary surveillance
B) Technical surveillance
C) Air surveillance
D) Mobile /foot surveillance
  • 18. When the observer takes a fixed position to watch a target:
A) Shadowing
B) Stationary / fixed surveillance
C) Casing
D) Tailing
  • 19. A secret investigation conducted before launching the actual case inquiry to verify facts:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Re-investigation
C) Follow-up investigation
D) Preparatory investigation / casing
  • 20. Evidence that proves a fact directly without need of inference:
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Ducomentary evidence
D) Circumtancial evidence
  • 21. Evidence that implies a fact from which the main fact may be inferred:
A) Direct evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 22. The body of the crime; the fact that a crime has actually been committed:
A) Res gestae
B) Prima facie
C) Corpus delicti
D) Modus operandi
  • 23. Method of operation; characteristic way a criminal commits crimes:
A) Corpus delicti
B) Alibi
C) Motive
D) Modus operandi
  • 24. Reason that impels a person to commit a crime:
A) Opportunity
B) Intent
C) Ability
D) Motive
  • 25. A defense that the accused was somewhere else when the crime happened:
A) Duress
B) Entrapment
C) Alibi
D) Self-defense
  • 26. A statement made by a suspect acknowledging guilt:
A) Confession
B) Admission
C) Deposition
D) Affidavit
  • 27. An acknowledgement of a fact or circumstance but not necessarily of guilt ?
A) Testimony
B) Admission
C) Declaration
D) Confession
  • 28. Who among informants is motivated by revenge against the target?
A) Mercenaries
B) Fearful
C) Grudge
D) Vengeful
  • 29. Informant who gives information in exchange for money or reward?
A) Disinterested
B) Mercenary
C) Repentant
D) Mercentile
  • 30. The most reliable type of informant is usually?
A) Criminal participant
B) Disinterested / Neutral
C) Grudge-bearing
D) Mercenary
  • 31. Under RA 4200, unauthorized wiretapping is:
A) Permitted without warrant in all cases
B) Allowed if public safety is involved
C) Allowed if police say so
D) A criminal offense
  • 32. A written order issued by a judge directing a peace officer to arrest a person
A) Summon
B) Subpoena
C) Search warrant
D) Warrant of arrest
  • 33. A search warrant is valid for:
A) Indefinite
B) 10 days from date of issuance
C) 30 days from date of issuance
D) 15 days from date of issuance
  • 34. A search warrant must be issued upon probable cause determined personally by
A) Prosecutor
B) President
C) Police chief
D) Judge
  • 35. Things to be seized under a search warrant must be particularly described in the:
A) Warrant itself
B) Police blotter
C) Affidavit only
D) News report
  • 36. Warrantless search incidental to a lawful arrest is valid if made:
A) At the time of arrest and within the immediate area of control
B) Any time after arrest
C) Before filling of complaint
D) 1 week after arrest
  • 37. Objects in plain view of an officer who has a right to be in the place can be seized under:
A) Consent search
B) Exigent circumstances
C) None of these
D) Plain view doctrine
  • 38. A search conducted with the voluntary permission of the person concerned:
A) Valid only if witnessed
B) Consent search; must be voluntary and intelligent
C) Required written court order
D) Always illegal
  • 39. Custodial investigation begins when:
A) The investigation focuses on a specific person who is taken into custody
B) The warrant is issued
C) . The officer first sees the suspect
D) The complaint is filed
  • 40. During custodial investigation, the suspect must be informed of the right to:
A) Remain silent
B) Have competent and independent counsel
C) Be informed of these rights in a language understood
D) All of the above
  • 41. Any extrajudicial confession made without the assistance of counsel is:
A) Null and void and cannot be used in court
B) Admissible in minor offenses only
C) Admissible if true
D) Admissible if signed
  • 42. The rule that evidence obtained illegally cannot be used in court:
A) Best evidence rules
B) Exclusionary rule / Fruit of the poisonous tree
C) Hearsay rules
D) Miranda rules
  • 43. Preliminary investigation is conducted to determine:
A) Public opinion
B) Probable cause
C) Suspicion
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 44. Who conducts preliminary investigation?
A) Prosecutor
B) Mayor
C) Police investigator
D) Judge
  • 45. Inquest proceeding applies when a person is lawfully arrested without warrant and:
A) There are no witnesses
B) The suspect waives rights
C) The offense is bailable
D) The arrest is valid and the offense requires preliminary investigation
  • 46. The period to file inquest for offenses punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months and 1 day to 6 years:
A) 15 hours
B) 36 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 18 hours
  • 47. The police blotter is a record of:
A) Daily events and reports at the station
B) Secret operation
C) Court decision
D) Confidential informants
  • 48. The document prepared by the investigator containing facts of the case:
A) Editorial
B) Investigative report
C) Policy paper
D) News release
  • 49. The sketch drawn at the crime scene showing measurements and distances:
A) Perspective sketch
B) Finished sketch
C) Rough sketch
D) Artistic sketch
  • 50. Photographs taken at the crime scene should be done in sequence:
A) Medium → general → close-up
B) No fix order
C) General → medium → close-up
D) Close-up → medium → general
  • 51. What is the minimum number of photographs recommended for complete scene documentation?**
A) Only one overview
B) 4
C) 2
D) Overlapping coverage from all angles
  • 52. The "walk-through" of the crime scene after photography:
A) Reconstruction
B) Release
C) Initial survey / primary search
D) Final survey
  • 53. Evidence should be marked:
A) After reaching the laboratory
B) Before the trial
C) At the scene immediately upon collection
D) When the prosecutor say so
  • 54. When collecting bloodstained material, it should be:
A) Keep under sunlight
B) Packed wet in plastic immediately
C) Air-dried properly then packaged to prevent contamination
D) Sprayed with water
  • 55. Fingerprints found at the scene are what type of evidence?
A) Hearsay
B) Documentary
C) Real / physical evidence
D) Testimonial
  • 56. Modus operandi files are useful to:
A) Justify overtime
B) Link crimes committed by the same person
C) Identify victims
D) Record police salary
  • 57. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good investigator?
A) Prejudgment
B) Impartiality
C) Open-mindedness
D) Perseverance
  • 58. The best time to interview a witness is:
A) One month later
B) As soon as possible after the event
C) Whenever convenient
D) After the trial start
  • 59. Leading questions may be allowed during:
A) Initial interview of friendly witness
B) Direct examination
C) Never
D) Cross examination
  • 60. A witness who cannot recall details may be aided with:
A) Pressure to remember
B) Past recollection recorded / refreshing memory
C) Leading questions always
D) Suggestion
  • 61. In interrogation, the investigator should start from:
A) Threatening arrest
B) . The most serious charge first
C) General matters then narrow to specific
D) Accusing immediately
  • 62. If a suspect confesses, the next step is:
A) Destroy other evidence
B) Publicize it
C) Release them
D) Reduce to writing with counsel assistance
  • 63. Entrapment is a means of:
A) Catching a criminal in the execution of their plan; lawful
B) Inducing a person to commit a crime
C) Manufacturing Evidence
D) Punishing innocent persons
  • 64. Instigation differs from entrapment because instigation:
A) Is the same as entrapment
B) Induces an innocent person to commit a crime; accused is acquitted
C) Is lawful
D) Required no evidence
  • 65. Undercover agent means:
A) An operative assigned to act under assumed identity
B) A judge
C) An officer openly in uniform
D) A jail warden
  • 66. The purpose of casing a place is to:
A) Arrest immediately
B) Observe layout, security, habits, without arousing suspicion
C) Destroy evidence
D) Announce police presence
  • 67. Stationary surveillance is also known as:
A) Shadowing
B) Fixed / stake-out
C) Loitering
D) Tailing
  • 68. When the target is aware of being followed and evades, this is:
A) Good practice
B) Normal
C) Surveillance compromised / blown
D) Expected
  • 69. A "pouch" or drop system in intelligence refers to:
A) Mail delivery
B) Evidence bag
C) Money bag
D) Leaving and picking up information at prearranged place
  • 70. A reliable source is one who:
A) Is paid the most
B) Has provided accurate information in the past
C) Always tells what you want to hear
D) Is related to the suspect
  • 71. Intelligence information evaluation uses four factors:
A) Speed, secrecy, cost, risk
B) Reliability of source, accuracy of info, relevance, timeliness
C) Rank, experience, training, courage
D) Time, place, person, thing
  • 72. Confidentiality in intelligence means:
A) Never writing anything down
B) Restricting access to those who need to know
C) Publishing on social media
D) Telling only friends
  • 73. The "need-to-know" principle means:
A) Only the public is informed
B) Everyone gets all information
C) No one gets information
D) Information given only to those whose duty requires it
  • 74. Preliminary investigation in the Philippines is governed by:
A) Rules of Court, Rule 112
B) Police manual only
C) Local ordinances
D) RPC only
  • 75. A complaint under Rule 110 is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by:
A) Offended party
B) Any peace officers
C) All of the above
D) Other public officer charged with enforcement
  • 76. A person can be charged even if the victim does not file if:
A) Any of these
B) The media demands it
C) The crime is against public interest
D) The police want to
  • 77. Venue of criminal action is where:
A) The victims lives
B) The court is most convenient
C) The prosecutor decides
D) The offense was committed or any of its essential ingredients occurred
  • 78. Double jeopardy means:
A) Having two lawyers
B) Being tried twice for the same offense after acquittal or conviction
C) Being questioned twice
D) Being arrested twice
  • 79. The accused is presumed:
A) Innocent if wealthy
B) Innocent until proven guilty
C) Guilty until proven otherwise
D) Guilty if charged
  • 80. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is required to establish:
A) Filling of complaint
B) Probable cause
C) Suspicion
D) Conviction
  • 81. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction if:
A) The victim say so
B) The suspect cannot explain
C) It is the only evidence
D) The facts proved are consistent with guilt and inconsistent with innocence
  • 82. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Inadmissible
C) Admissible if urgent
D) Admissible if written
  • 83. Dying declaration is an exception to:
A) Chain of custody
B) Hearsay rule
C) Miranda rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 84. For a dying declaration to be valid, the declarant must be:
A) Conscious of impending death
B) Under medication
C) Related to the victim
D) Over 21 years old
  • 85. Res gestae refers to statements:
A) Taken from books
B) Prepared in advance
C) Made long after the event
D) Spontaneously made during startling occurrence
  • 86. The crime scene should be photographed:
A) After cleaning
B) Before anyone enters and disturbs it
C) Only if media is present
D) . After evidence is collected
  • 87. When evidence is transferred from one handler to another, this must be recorded in:
A) General diary
B) Chain of custudy form
C) Social media post
D) Personal notebook
  • 88. If evidence is lost or contaminated:
A) Investigator is jailed immediately
B) Admissibility may be affected; integrity challenged
C) Suspect is acquitted automatically
D) Case is automatically dismissed
  • 89. The release of the crime scene is done when:
A) Media leaves
B) Suspect is caught
C) Public gets impatient
D) All processing is completed and approved
  • 90. Follow-up investigation begins:
A) After preliminary investigation and continues until case is solved or closed
B) Only after conviction
C) When ordered by media
D) Before the crime is reported
  • 91. During follow-up, alibis should be:
A) Ignored
B) Verified and checked for credibility
C) Kept secret
D) Accepted immediately
  • 92. The investigator's court appearance requires:
A) Arguing with the defense
B) Bringing witnesses secretly
C) Wearing casual clothes
D) Familiarity with case facts, documents, and proper decorum
  • 93. When testifying, the witness should:
A) Guess if unsure
B) Give extra information voluntarily
C) Look only at the prosecutor
D) Answer clearly and truthfully only what is known
  • 94. A case may be closed when:
A) Suspect is identified and evidence sufficient for filing
B) Suspect is dead
C) No leads despite all efforts
D) Any of the above as per procedure
  • 95. Cold case refers to:
A) Well-documented case
B) A crime committed in winter
C) An unsolved case with exhausted leads
D) Minor offense
  • 96. Re-opening a closed case is proper when:
A) New and substantial evidence is discovered
B) Public demands it
C) Investigator is bored
D) Media reports it
  • 97. Republic Act 11131 is known as:
A) Police act
B) Security agency regulation law
C) Criminology Profession Act of 2018
D) Anti-crime law
  • 98. CHED Memorandum Order No. 5 Series of 2018 covers:
A) Fire code
B) Police training
C) BS Criminology curriculum
D) Jail management
  • 99. The licensure exam for Criminologists includes CDI subjects with a weight of:
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 15%
D) 20%
  • 100. The ultimate goal of the criminal justice system is:
A) Conviction
B) Justice through due process and truth
C) Punishment
D) Speedy disposal of cases
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