COEDAD FINAL - Quiz
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Fixed timestep
B) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
C) Minimum timestep
D) Auto timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Reading the voltage value at t=0
B) Calculating from frequency response
C) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
D) Measuring peak voltage only
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Program microcontrollers
C) Build physical electronic circuits
D) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Bode plot
C) Time domain plot
D) Smith chart
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) RxC
C) R+C
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 100Ω
B) 47Ω
C) 220Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Monte Carlo
B) Fourier
C) Transient
D) DC sweep
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 1ms
B) 10ms
C) 5ms
D) 2ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 5ΚΩ
C) 20kΩ
D) 15ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 500Hz
C) 10kHz
D) 1kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 2MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) TL082
B) LT1001
C) LM358
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >40dB
B) >20dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Current out / Current in
B) Voltage out / Voltage in
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 1kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Single input signal only
B) Different signals on each input
C) Grounded input
D) Identical signals applied to both inputs
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) External clock
B) LC resonance
C) RC time constant
D) Power supply frequency
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Average voltage
B) RMS calculation
C) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
D) Instantaneous voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 1Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 100Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
C) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
D) Transistors with 5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Voltage follower
B) Linear regulation
C) Open loop control
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 3.3V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Switching noise
B) Input current
C) Average power
D) Output voltage settling time
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-7
B) gmin = 1e-9
C) gmin = 1e-12
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Voltage divider
B) Series sense resistor with feedback
C) Parallel resistor
D) Capacitive coupling
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Systematic node voltage checking
B) Visual inspection
C) Random probing
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Crystal oscillator
B) Colpitts oscillator
C) Wien bridge oscillator
D) Hartley oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 47kQ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 1ΚΩ
D) 100ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVin/AVout
B) Alout/AVout
C) AVout/AVin
D) AVout/Alload
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Multiple feedback
C) Twin-T
D) Sallen-Key
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 10
D) 80dB
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Gain bandwidth
B) Input bias current
C) CMRR
D) Slew rate
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Power = V *1
C) Heat measurement
D) Energy calculation
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) -15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Boost converter
C) Buck converter
D) Flyback converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 24V
C) 15V
D) 12V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) SPICE compatible text format
C) XML format
D) Binary format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Long-term frequency drift measurement
B) Phase noise
C) Peak amplitude
D) RMS voltage
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) RC phase shift
C) Colpitts
D) Wien bridge
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 2
B) 15
C) 10
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Linked files
B) Multiple schematics
C) Component arrays
D) Symbol creation with subcircuits
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F4
B) F1
C) F3
D) F2
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +5V only
B) +12V only
C) ±15V
D) ±12V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Bridge configuration with four diodes
C) Single diode setup
D) Center-tapped transformer
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 250kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .dc
B) .op
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) -5V
B) 1V
C) 0V
D) 5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 2200μF
B) 470μF
C) 1000μF
D) 100μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) abstol 1e-12
C) itol = 1e-8
D) reltol = 1e-3
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .meas
B) .plot
C) .print
D) .save
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Separate text file
B) Verbal description
C) SPICE directives with comments
D) Reference manual
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 5V
B) 10V
C) 12V
D) 15V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 9V
B) 5V
C) 6V
D) 3.3V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Visual estimation
B) Peer review
C) Theoretical calculation comparison
D) Assumption
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 10ns
B) 1μς
C) 1ns
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 1mH
B) 220μΗ
C) 100μΗ
D) 47μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 2V square wave
B) 1V sine wave
C) 0.5V triangle wave
D) 3V pulse
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
C) Cutoff frequency at OdB
D) Maximum frequency of input signal
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .fft V(out)
B) .tran fft
C) .four
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Variable capacitor
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Fixed resistor
D) Zener diode
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
B) Quarter power point
C) Zero crossing point
D) Maximum amplitude point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -90 degrees
B) -60 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -180 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Random numbers
B) Default names
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Sequential only
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Mixed files
B) Random storage
C) Single directory
D) Separate folders for each analysis type
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
B) Numeric only
C) Random string
D) Date_Time
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 120V AC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Video demonstration of circuit operation
B) Simulation results
C) Complete schematic file
D) Comparison with theoretical calculations
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Power cycling
B) Circuit restart
C) Component replacement
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
B) .print rms
C) .measure average
D) .save rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) 20 dB/decade
B) -60 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Transient analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) AC analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Soft-start circuit
C) Over-current protection
D) Thermal shutdown
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >100dB
B) >40dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) Startup switches
C) External sources
D) .ic command with node voltages
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Exponential rise to steady state
B) Sinusoidal oscillation
C) Step function
D) Linear increase
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <5%
C) <0.1%
D) <1%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 5th order Elliptic filter
C) 4th order Butterworth filter
D) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Output voltage / differential input voltage
C) Peak output voltage
D) Total output / total input
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 24V DC
B) 240V AC
C) 120V AC
D) 12V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) diff(V1,V2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.5
B) 0.1
C) 0.25
D) 0.707
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 100
B) 50
C) 75
D) 200
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Output ripple voltage
B) Input impedance
C) Transient response
D) Efficiency at different loads
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Comparison with datasheet specifications
B) Visual inspection
C) Peer feedback
D) Assumption based
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Save as image only
D) Copy to clipboard
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Multiple feedback topology
B) State variable filter
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) Twin-T configuration
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 500mA
B) 3A
C) 2A
D) 1A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Current ratio only
B) Power loss calculation
C) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
D) Voltage ratio only
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Sequential backup with date stamps
B) Single file override
C) Random copies
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Using.subckt definition
B) Symbol editor only
C) Component wizard
D) Modifying existing parts
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Reduce timestep
B) Increase maximum iterations
C) Modify gmin stepping
D) Change solver type
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1A
B) 5A
C) 500mA
D) 2A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Random amplitude variation
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 47μF
B) 1000μF
C) 100μF
D) 220μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Circuit simplification
B) Complete rebuild
C) Progressive component addition
D) Parameter randomization
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <0.5dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 1KΩ
C) 2ΚΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 50kHz
B) 200kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10V peak-to-peak
B) 5V peak-to-peak
C) 1V peak-to-peak
D) 3.3V peak-to-peak
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