Risk management - Quiz
Risk management
  • 1. Which organization identifies the principles for risk management mentioned in the text?
A) International Organization for Standardization
B) World Health Organization
C) ISO 31000 Committee on Standards
D) Benoit Mandelbrot Foundation
  • 2. What is the ISO principle regarding resource expenditure in risk management?
A) Resources expended must equal the total value of the assets being protected.
B) Resources expended to mitigate risk should be less than the consequence of inaction.
C) Expenditures should focus strictly on eliminating 100 percent of all identified threats.
D) Mitigation costs are irrelevant as long as the risk is completely removed.
  • 3. According to ISO principles, risk management should be what in relation to organizational processes?
A) An optional external review
B) A temporary trial phase
C) A completely separate department
D) An integral part
  • 4. What should risk management explicitly address according to the ISO principles?
A) Marketing strategies and competitor pricing
B) Financial profits and shareholder dividends
C) Employee satisfaction and retention
D) Uncertainty and assumptions
  • 5. Which information should be used when following the ISO principles for risk management?
A) Exclusively internal company records
B) Historical data older than ten years
C) Information provided solely by external consultants
D) The best available information
  • 6. How should risk management adapt to changes, based on the ISO principles?
A) Change only during annual corporate restructuring
B) Remain fixed and unchangeable once established
C) Be dynamic, iterative and responsive to change
D) Alter its core goals every single week
  • 7. Who distinguished between 'mild' and 'wild' risk?
A) An anonymous group of actuaries
B) Standard ISO 31000 authors
C) ISO standards committee
D) Benoit Mandelbrot
  • 8. What type of probability distribution does mild risk follow?
A) Infinite variance distributions
B) Pareto or power-law distributions
C) Normal or near-normal probability distributions
D) Fat-tailed distributions
  • 9. Why is mild risk relatively predictable?
A) It is subject to regression to the mean and the law of large numbers.
B) It always results in zero financial loss.
C) It never changes over time.
D) It is managed entirely by government regulators.
  • 10. What type of probability distribution does wild risk follow?
A) Strictly uniform distributions
B) Normal or near-normal distributions
C) Bell-curve distributions with finite variance
D) Fat-tailed distributions, e.g., Pareto or power-law distributions
  • 11. Why is wild risk difficult or impossible to predict?
A) It has a predictable mean that never shifts.
B) It is subject to regression to the tail, rendering the law of large numbers ineffective.
C) It follows standard normal probability curves.
D) It only occurs in completely unregulated markets.
  • 12. What is a common error in risk assessment and management regarding mild and wild risk?
A) To underestimate the wildness of risk, assuming it to be mild when it is wild
B) To ignore normal distributions entirely in favor of Pareto distributions
C) To treat mild risk as if it could destroy the entire organization
D) To use power-law distributions for simple everyday events
  • 13. Which standard outlines the risk management process consisting of several steps?
A) ISO 9001
B) ISO 27001
C) ISO 31000
D) ISO 14001
  • 14. What is the first step in the risk management process according to ISO 31000?
A) Source analysis
B) Risk identification
C) Problem analysis
D) Establishing the context
  • 15. Establishing the context involves observing what?
A) Competitor stock prices exclusively
B) The personal lives of all employees
C) Only the internal financial records
D) The environment of the organization
  • 16. When establishing the context, what needs to be defined regarding stakeholders?
A) Their voting records in national elections
B) Their identity and objectives
C) Their personal credit scores
D) Their home addresses and phone numbers
  • 17. After establishing the context, what is the next step in the risk management process?
A) Purchase insurance policies
B) Execute immediate mitigation strategies
C) Dismiss all project stakeholders
D) Identify potential risks
  • 18. What do risks concern when they are triggered?
A) Guaranteed legal penalties
B) Mandatory structural reorganizations
C) Events that cause problems or benefits
D) Only catastrophic financial failures
  • 19. Where may risk sources be located relative to the system being targeted?
A) Only within legislative bodies
B) Strictly internal to the system
C) Exclusively external to the organization
D) Internal or external to the system
  • 20. Why does the text suggest using mitigation instead of management for risk?
A) Management implies that risks can be completely eliminated.
B) Risk deals with factors of decision-making that cannot be managed.
C) Mitigation sounds more professional in business reports.
D) Management is a legally trademarked term.
  • 21. What are some examples of risk sources provided in the text?
A) Stakeholders of a project, employees of a company, or the weather over an airport
B) Accounting software errors, server crashes, and power outages
C) Government regulations, tax policies, and trade tariffs
D) Stock market crashes, inflation rates, and global pandemics
  • 22. What are risks related to in problem analysis?
A) Guaranteed positive outcomes
B) Identified threats
C) Planned organizational changes
D) Unidentified random occurrences
  • 23. With which entities do threats most importantly exist according to problem analysis?
A) Consultants, auditors, and external contractors
B) Competitors, media outlets, and general publics
C) Shareholders, customers, and legislative bodies such as the government
D) Suppliers, distributors, and logistics partners
  • 24. What risk event is illustrated by stakeholders withdrawing during a project?
A) It forces the government to take over operations
B) It will automatically improve employee morale
C) It guarantees an immediate increase in profits
D) It may endanger funding of the project
  • 25. What risk event is illustrated by confidential information being handled improperly?
A) It may be stolen by employees even within a closed network
B) It becomes public property automatically
C) It loses all value to competitors
D) It will be safely encrypted by external hackers
  • 26. What risk event is illustrated by lightning striking an aircraft during takeoff?
A) It recharges the aircraft's emergency batteries
B) It improves the navigational equipment
C) It causes a minor delay in flight schedules
D) It may make all people on board immediate casualties
  • 27. What factors may the chosen method of identifying risks depend on?
A) Company size, office location, and CEO preference
B) Culture, industry practice, and compliance
C) Stock exchange listings and marketing budgets
D) Daily weather conditions and employee turnover
  • 28. In objectives-based risk identification, what is identified as a risk?
A) Any change in government tax laws
B) Any decision made by executive management
C) Any event that increases the speed of daily operations
D) Any event that may prevent an objective from being achieved
  • 29. In scenario-based risk identification, what is created?
A) Employee performance reviews
B) Different scenarios
C) Legal compliance contracts
D) Financial balance sheets
  • 30. What is the taxonomy in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) A classification of software bugs
B) A hierarchical list of corporate job titles
C) A breakdown of possible risk sources
D) A database of historical financial losses
  • 31. How are risks revealed in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) Through random audits conducted by external consultants
B) Through answers to a questionnaire compiled from the taxonomy and best practices
C) By analyzing daily social media mentions
D) By reviewing quarterly tax filings
  • 32. What is common-risk checking?
A) Checking available lists of known risks for application to a particular situation
B) Asking employees to guess what might go wrong each morning
C) Comparing company expenses with industry averages
D) Testing software code for basic syntax errors
  • 33. What does risk charting combine?
A) Marketing strategies, customer feedback, and sales data
B) Resources at risk, threats, modifying factors, and consequences
C) Tax rates, legal regulations, and government policies
D) Profit margins, employee counts, and office sizes
  • 34. What can be created by listing resources, threats, modifying factors, and consequences in a matrix?
A) An automated employee payroll system
B) A binding legal contract for insurance
C) A public relations crisis management plan
D) A variety of approaches for risk identification
  • 35. According to the ISO principles, should risk management be capable of continual improvement?
A) Yes, it should be capable of continual improvement and enhancement
B) No, it should remain standardized and never be modified
C) Only when mandated by external regulatory bodies
D) Only during periods of severe financial loss
  • 36. Which human element must be taken into account according to ISO principles?
A) Union membership numbers
B) Human factors
C) Personal political beliefs
D) Employee salary expectations
  • 37. How should the risk management process be described regarding transparency?
A) Hidden from lower-level employees
B) Secretive and executive-only
C) Confidential to board members
D) Transparent and inclusive
  • 38. What statistical law becomes invalid or ineffective for wild risk?
A) The law of large numbers
B) Moore's law
C) Murphy's law
D) The law of supply and demand
  • 39. What kind of mean or variance does wild risk exhibit?
A) Zero mean and zero variance
B) Infinite mean or variance
C) Constant and predictable variance
D) Fixed mean with normal distribution
  • 40. What term describes the phenomenon where wild risk is subject to movement toward the extreme tails?
A) Central limit theorem
B) Regression to the mean
C) Standard deviation shift
D) Regression to the tail
  • 41. When did opportunities first appear in academic research or management books?
A) 1970s
B) 1990s
C) 1980s
D) 2000s
  • 42. Did the first PMBoK Project Management Body of Knowledge draft of 1987 mention opportunities?
A) Implicitly
B) No
C) Only briefly
D) Yes
  • 43. When were opportunities included in project management literature like PMBoK?
A) Since the 2000s
B) Since the 1970s
C) Since the 1980s
D) Since the 1990s
  • 44. When did opportunities become a significant part of project risk management?
A) 1990s
B) 1980s
C) 2010s
D) 2000s
  • 45. What are positive risks called?
A) Vulnerabilities
B) Threats
C) Opportunities
D) Liabilities
  • 46. In practice, how are risks usually considered?
A) Usually negative
B) Usually positive
C) Always neutral
D) Always beneficial
  • 47. Focusing significantly more on threats than on opportunities can lead to what negative phenomenon?
A) Groupthink
B) Target fixation
C) Scope creep
D) Analysis paralysis
  • 48. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses included as an activity in the Monitor and Control process?
A) 4th Ed.
B) 6th Ed.
C) 3rd Ed.
D) 1st Ed.
  • 49. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses separated as a distinct process?
A) 4th Ed.
B) 6th Ed.
C) 1st Ed.
D) 2nd Ed.
  • 50. What does the Monitor Risks process involve?
A) Implementing agreed-upon plans
B) Numerical analysis of effects
C) Monitoring the implementation
D) Identifying threats
  • 51. Which of the following is a source of risk mentioned in the text?
A) Guaranteed market profits
B) Consistent decision-making
C) Political instability
D) Fixed percentage sizing
  • 52. Which strategy is typically used to manage threats?
A) Ignoring potential consequences
B) Maximizing negative effects
C) Increasing the probability of the threat
D) Avoiding the threat
  • 53. Since approximately when has risk management appeared in scientific and management literature?
A) The 1920s
B) The 1980s
C) The 1950s
D) The 1900s
  • 54. When did risk management become a formal science?
A) The 1950s
B) The 1970s
C) The 2000s
D) The 1920s
  • 55. What does assessing overall risk often prove to be in practice?
A) Irrelevant
B) Fully automated
C) Simple and straightforward
D) Tricky
  • 56. What represents a unique challenge for risk managers?
A) Opportunity cost
B) Market inflation
C) Employee turnover
D) Fixed asset depreciation
  • 57. What does ideal risk management optimize?
A) Office space
B) Resource usage
C) Employee headcount
D) Advertising budgets
  • 58. Evaluating the severity of consequences is often quite difficult for which type of assets?
A) Buildings and vehicles
B) Cash reserves
C) Intangible assets
D) Inventory in warehouses
  • 59. Who proposed a formula for presenting risks in financial terms in 1970 at IBM?
A) Albert Einstein
B) Robert Courtney Jr.
C) Isaac Newton
D) Bill Gates
  • 60. What does the acronym ALE stand for in the context of the Courtney formula?
A) Annual ledger expense
B) Annualized loss expectancy
C) Actual loss evaluation
D) Assessed liability estimate
  • 61. Which agency type accepted the Courtney formula as the official risk analysis method?
A) US governmental agencies
B) European banking institutions
C) Global health organizations
D) Private tech startups
  • 62. What must be addressed alongside evaluating the severity of consequences for intangible assets?
A) Employee holiday schedules
B) Building architectural designs
C) Office furniture colors
D) Asset valuation
  • 63. How many essential techniques does risk management planning use?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Three
D) Two
  • 64. Which technique involves intentionally assuming risks without financial protections?
A) Transfer
B) Avoidance
C) Reduction
D) Acceptance
  • 65. Which approach shields a business from losses by shifting risks to a third party?
A) Acceptance
B) Avoidance
C) Reduction
D) Transfer
  • 66. In the transfer approach, what is frequently given in exchange for shifting risks?
A) A penalty
B) An asset
C) A guarantee
D) A fee
  • 67. What strategy avoids losses by choosing not to participate in high-risk ventures?
A) Acceptance
B) Avoidance
C) Transfer
D) Reduction
  • 68. By using the avoidance strategy, what else does the business lose out on besides avoiding losses?
A) Possibilities
B) Financial assets
C) Third-party fees
D) Insurance policies
  • 69. Which approach lowers risks by implementing strategies like insurance?
A) Reduction
B) Acceptance
C) Transfer
D) Avoidance
  • 70. What does insurance guarantee in the event of losses?
A) Exploitation
B) Reimbursement
C) Enhancement
D) Acquisition
  • 71. What is another meaning of the acronym ACAT used in US Defense industry procurements?
A) Accepted Contingency Asset Transfer
B) Avoidance and Control Allocation Technique
C) Acquisition Category
D) Asset Control and Transfer
  • 72. What are the specific mitigation strategies for opportunities mentioned in the text?
A) Accept, transfer, avoid, reduce
B) Avoid, control, accept, transfer
C) Exploit, share, enhance, ignore
D) Eliminate, mitigate, insure, budget
  • 73. What was a major problem with early software development methodologies?
A) They avoided treating high-risk patients
B) They had prohibitive Halon system costs
C) They used water sprinklers that caused damage
D) They only delivered software in the final phase
  • 74. How may insurance be described more accurately than as a risk transfer?
A) A complete hazard eradication tool
B) A risk-retention pool
C) A post-event compensatory mechanism
D) A pre-event prevention strategy
  • 75. Who remains the person who has been in the accident according to the text's car example?
A) The court judge
B) The policyholder
C) The insurance agent
D) The third-party contractor
  • 76. How do methods of managing risk fall?
A) Exclusively into risk transfer
B) Into a single mandatory category
C) Strictly into bankruptcy proceedings
D) Into multiple categories
  • 77. What type of insurance falls into the category of risk retention?
A) True self-insurance
B) State-mandated health insurance
C) Commercial property insurance
D) Mandatory liability insurance
  • 78. Which of the following is given as an example of a risk that is retained by default?
A) War
B) Routine employee turnover
C) Minor office property damage
D) Common computer viruses
  • 79. Which management level should decide on a risk concerning the image of the organization?
A) IT management
B) Junior staff
C) Top management
D) Facility management
  • 80. What is the second basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Impact assessment
B) Threat assessment
C) Risk treatment planning
D) Vulnerability assessment
  • 81. What is the third basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Control implementation
B) Vulnerability assessment
C) Risk mitigation strategy development
D) Impact assessment
  • 82. What is done with risks that are decided to be transferred during implementation?
A) Reporting them to external regulators.
B) Purchasing insurance policies.
C) Ignoring them completely.
D) Absorbing them entirely without coverage.
  • 83. How often should risk analysis results and management plans be updated?
A) Periodically.
B) Once every decade.
C) On a daily basis without exception.
D) Only after a major corporate failure.
  • 84. What do ERM systems usually focus on safeguarding?
A) Employee benefit packages.
B) Physical office buildings.
C) Short-term profits.
D) Reputation.
  • 85. What framework governs the parallel regulatory capital requirements, including for operational risk?
A) Bretton Woods
B) Dodd-Frank
C) Basel III
D) Basel I
  • 86. What do fund managers use to protect their fund value?
A) Limitation of liability clauses
B) Standard contract language
C) Indemnification provisions
D) Various strategies
  • 87. Who defined 'contractual risk management' as a practical, proactive and systematical contracting method?
A) La Gorce Country Club
B) CH2M Hill
C) Samuel Greengard
D) Petri Keskitalo
  • 88. What nationality is the academic Petri Keskitalo?
A) Swedish
B) Norwegian
C) American
D) British
  • 89. In what year was Samuel Greengard's article mentioning two US legal cases published?
A) 2010
B) 2015
C) 2020
D) 2005
  • 90. Which US legal case deals with the risk to a professional advisor who signs an indemnification provision?
A) Keskitalo v. UDC
B) Basel v. Greengard
C) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
D) UDC v. CH2M Hill
  • 91. Which US legal case deals with the effectiveness of a limitation of liability clause?
A) UDC v. CH2M Hill
B) Keskitalo v. Greengard
C) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
D) Basel v. La Gorce
  • 92. What did Samuel Greengard recommend using as much as possible to reduce risk?
A) Verbal agreements between parties
B) Jurisdiction-specific indemnification clauses
C) Industry-standard contract language
D) Novel and customized legal terminology
  • 93. Which risk analysis technique requires diagramming software according to the text?
A) Hazard analysis
B) Hazard and operability study
C) Failure mode and effects analysis
D) Fault tree analysis
  • 94. Which tool can be used to perform failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)?
A) Diagramming software only
B) Safety assurance case generators
C) A spreadsheet program
D) Customs risk management frameworks
  • 95. What method did the FDA introduce through a draft guidance for medical device safety assurance analysis?
A) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
B) Hazard and Operability Study
C) Fault Tree Analysis
D) Safety Assurance Case
  • 96. For which type of devices is a safety assurance case expected as part of pre-market clearance submission like 510(k)?
A) Safety critical devices
B) Only non-implantable administrative devices
C) Customs inspection equipment
D) All types of medical devices without exception
  • 97. What is a typical characteristic of a risk officer?
A) Total indifference
B) A healthy skepticism
C) Extreme optimism
D) Lack of experience
  • 98. Which of the following is an attribute of each risk in the database?
A) Employee salary
B) Opening date
C) Customer satisfaction score
D) Project profit margin
  • 99. What are megaprojects also sometimes called?
A) Standard assignments
B) Minor tasks
C) Micro initiatives
D) Major programs
  • 100. Which of the following is an example of a megaproject?
A) Local bicycle racks
B) Residential sheds
C) Neighborhood parks
D) Major bridges
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