IASEC2 MIDTERM REVIEWER: MORALLY QUESTIONABLE EDITION - Quiz
  • 1. 2 + 2 =?
A) may kaliwa ba sa right? may kanan ba sa left?
B) 4
C) Sure ka sa mga question na toh?
D) are you gagoing me?
E) hmmm depende kung 3 yan kasi kung 3 yan edi 5
  • 2. What is the main purpose of application security testing (AST)?
A) To reduce hosting costs
B) To make applications run faster
C) To make applications more resistant to security threats by identifying security weaknesses and vulnerabilities in the source code
D) To increase the number of users
E) To design the user interface
  • 3. Which of the following best describes Static Application Security Testing (SAST)?
A) A method that attacks a running application
B) A backup strategy
C) A tool that blocks network traffic
D) A white-box method that scans source code, bytecode, or binaries for security flaws without actually running the program
E) A way to monitor user behavior
  • 4. Which of the following best describes Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)?
A) A tool for managing passwords
B) A black-box method that evaluates a running application from the outside by simulating real-world hacker attacks to find live vulnerabilities
C) A type of firewall
D) A method that only reads source code
E) A way to train employees
  • 5. What makes Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST) different from SAST and DAST?
A) It combines features of both by placing security agents inside a running application's environment to monitor code execution in real time
B) It is used only after the software is retired
C) It tests only network cables
D) It does not test applications at all
E) It only works on printed documents
  • 6. A developer wants to know whether the open-source libraries used in their project have known vulnerabilities. Which testing type should be used?
A) DAST
B) IAST
C) Software Composition Analysis (SCA), which scans third-party libraries and open-source dependencies for known vulnerabilities or licensing issues
D) Wi-Fi scanning
E) SAST
  • 7. Which tool is an open-source web application security testing tool used to identify vulnerabilities in web applications?
A) OWASP ZAP, which automatically sends test requests to the application and analyzes the responses for vulnerabilities
B) Microsoft Word
C) Nessus
D) Wireshark
E) SonarQube
  • 8. A tester wants to intercept a request, change its values, and send it again to see how the server responds. Which tool is the best fit?
A) Nessus
B) Burp Suite, an intercepting proxy that lets the tester view, modify, and resend HTTP requests
C) SonarQube
D) A spreadsheet
E) A web browser
  • 9. What does SonarQube do?
A) It scans Wi-Fi networks
B) It encrypts files
C) It intercepts HTTP requests
D) It analyzes source code to detect security vulnerabilities, bugs, code smells, and poor coding practices
E) It manages user accounts
  • 10. An admin needs to scan a server, a network device, and an application for weaknesses and get a report with Critical, High, Medium, and Low risk levels. Which tool fits?
A) A word processor
B) Nessus, which compares scan results with a database of known vulnerabilities and generates a report with risk levels
C) SonarQube
D) A file archiver
E) A password manager
  • 11. True or False: In the application security testing process, Reporting comes before Vulnerability Identification.
A) False
B) True
  • 12. What is the main purpose of Network Access Control (NAC)?
A) To speed up the network
B) To store backups of files
C) To track employee attendance
D) To control and monitor who can access a network by allowing only verified users and compliant devices, enforcing security rules before access is granted
E) To design websites
  • 13. When does Pre-Admission NAC take place?
A) Only when a virus is found
B) At the end of every month
C) Before a device joins the network, when its identity and compliance are evaluated during the connection request
D) After the device has left the network
E) Only during system backups
  • 14. A compromised device is already inside the network and tries to reach a sensitive area. Which NAC type helps stop this?
A) Pre-Admission NAC
B) A printer driver
C) A screen saver
D) A guest Wi-Fi password
E) Post-Admission NAC, which restricts lateral movement by requiring re-authentication for sensitive areas
  • 15. What does the Policy Server do in NAC?
A) It prints network reports
B) It writes source code
C) It determines the access level based on identity, permissions, device posture, and request type, then authorizes, restricts, or denies access
D) It cools the server room
E) It sells network devices
  • 16. Which of the following describes an Access Requestor (AR) in NAC?
A) Any device, user, or process requesting network access, such as laptops, servers, IP cameras, printers, and IoT devices
B) A firewall rule
C) A network cable
D) A backup tape
E) A software license
  • 17. A remote employee connects to the company network through a VPN gateway. Which NAC element serves as the access control point?
A) The office printer
B) The Wi-Fi password
C) The Network Access Server (NAS), which provides secure entry to internal networks for remote employees
D) The company logo
E) The employee's email
  • 18. Which of the following is a limitation of NAC?
A) It cannot block any device
B) It has low visibility and control over IoT devices or endpoints without specific user identities
C) It works only on paper
D) It has no policies
E) It increases network speed
  • 19. True or False: According to the slides, NAC protects against threats that originate within the network, such as insider attacks.
A) False
B) True
  • 20. What is the main goal of the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SSDLC)?
A) To make software cheaper than competitors
B) To replace all developers
C) To remove testing from development
D) To produce software that is reliable, secure, and resistant to cyberattacks while maintaining functionality and performance
E) To finish projects faster than planned
  • 21. What happens during the Planning Phase of the SSDLC?
A) The code is written
B) The software is released
C) The project team identifies business goals, security objectives, potential risks, and compliance requirements
D) Bugs are patched
E) Penetration testing is performed
  • 22. A team writes down that the system must support user authentication, access control, encryption, and audit logging. Which SSDLC phase is this?
A) The Testing Phase
B) The Requirements Phase, where both functional and security requirements are gathered and documented
C) The Maintenance Phase
D) The Deployment Phase
E) The Retirement Phase
  • 23. What is done during the Design Phase of the SSDLC?
A) Patches are applied
B) Backups are deleted
C) The software is retired
D) Users are trained
E) A secure system architecture is created, and threat modeling is performed to identify possible attacks and weaknesses
  • 24. What is done during the Testing Phase of the SSDLC?
A) Business goals are set
B) The code is written
C) Requirements are collected
D) The software is deployed
E) Security testing verifies that the application is protected against threats, including vulnerability assessments, penetration testing, SAST, and DAST
  • 25. What happens during the Deployment Phase of the SSDLC?
A) Threat models are drawn
B) The application is configured securely and released, with access controls, monitoring systems, and backup strategies in place
C) The project idea is proposed
D) The software is thrown away
E) Requirements are collected
  • 26. Why is the Maintenance Phase needed in the SSDLC?
A) Because testing is not allowed
B) Because it reduces user trust
C) Because design is finished
D) Because software never changes
E) Because the software must be continuously monitored and updated with security patches to stay protected from newly discovered threats
  • 27. True or False: The Secure Software Development Life Cycle extends the traditional SDLC by adding security-focused practices.
A) False
B) True
  • 28. What is the main purpose of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
A) To update software
B) To quietly steal passwords
C) To encrypt all data
D) To make a computer, website, or network resource unavailable to its legitimate users
E) To improve website speed
  • 29. How does a flood attack cause denial of service?
A) It installs a new browser
B) It deletes the user's account
C) It saturates the targeted server with an overwhelming amount of packets so legitimate users cannot reach it
D) It changes the website colors
E) It sends a single small email
  • 30. Which of the following is a method used to help prevent DoS attacks?
A) Turning off logging
B) Ignoring unusual traffic
C) Disabling the firewall
D) Sharing admin passwords
E) Using a cloud mitigation provider, which is more effective than relying on a firewall alone
  • 31. What is SQL Injection?
A) A type of Wi-Fi attack
B) A way to back up a database
C) A method of encrypting databases
D) A vulnerability where attackers inject malicious SQL queries through user inputs to manipulate the backend database
E) A tool for designing tables
  • 32. A website's login form lets users type SQL code that the database then runs. What is the best way to prevent this?
A) Trust all user input
B) Display detailed database errors
C) Give all users full privileges
D) Use prepared statements and parameterized queries, and validate and restrict user input
E) Remove the login form
  • 33. Which type of SQL injection forces the database to generate an error message to reveal information?
A) Blind SQL injection
B) DOM-based XSS
C) Error-based SQL injection, where the attacker intentionally causes the database to generate an error message
D) Union-based SQL injection
E) Stored XSS
  • 34. What is Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?
A) A vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious client-side scripts, usually JavaScript, into a trusted website that then run in other users' browsers
B) An attack that floods a server with packets
C) A hardware failure
D) A database backup
E) A fake email asking for passwords
  • 35. Which type of XSS permanently stores malicious input in the application and executes it whenever users visit the page?
A) Union-based injection
B) Blind SQL injection
C) Stored XSS, where the malicious input is permanently saved by the application and runs for every visitor
D) DOM-based XSS
E) Reflected XSS
  • 36. How does a Content Security Policy (CSP) help against XSS?
A) It reduces the impact of XSS by restricting the sources from which scripts are allowed to execute
B) It speeds up scripts
C) It deletes cookies
D) It blocks all users
E) It encrypts the database
  • 37. What is phishing?
A) A cyberattack where criminals pretend to be a trusted person or organization to trick victims into sharing information, clicking bad links, or downloading malware
B) A kind of antivirus
C) A method for speeding up the internet
D) A way to back up files
E) A type of fishing app
  • 38. A user receives an email that looks like it is from their bank and asks for their one-time password (OTP). What should they do?
A) Forward it to friends
B) Avoid clicking links or sharing the OTP, verify the sender through official channels, and turn on Multi-Factor Authentication
C) Click the link quickly
D) Ignore all security tools
E) Reply with the OTP
  • 39. True or False: CSRF tokens and SameSite cookies are listed as ways to prevent CSRF.
A) False
B) True
  • 40. What does the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) do?
A) It protects patient health records
B) It criminalizes unauthorized access to computer systems in the United States
C) It sets rules for credit cards
D) It regulates online ads
E) It governs children's websites
  • 41. A hospital must protect the privacy and security of patient health data. Which U.S. law sets these standards?
A) GLBA
B) COPPA
C) SOX
D) CFAA
E) HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
  • 42. Which U.S. law requires financial institutions to protect customers' personal information?
A) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), which applies to financial institutions
B) COPPA
C) SOX
D) HIPAA
E) FISMA
  • 43. Which U.S. law governs data practices for online services aimed at children?
A) GLBA
B) HIPAA
C) The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA), which regulates how services handle children's data
D) CFAA
E) SOX
  • 44. Which U.S. agency regulates cybersecurity through its authority over unfair or deceptive trade practices?
A) The NIST
B) The FBI
C) The DHS
D) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC), through its authority over unfair or deceptive trade practices
E) The Department of Agriculture
  • 45. A California resident asks a company to delete their personal data and stop selling it. Which law gives them this right?
A) SOX
B) The California Consumer Privacy Act and California Privacy Rights Act (CCPA/CPRA)
C) HIPAA
D) COPPA
E) FISMA
  • 46. Which standard provides protocols and guidelines that secure credit and debit card transactions?
A) SOX
B) PCI-DSS, the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard
C) CMMC
D) COPPA
E) HIPAA
  • 47. True or False: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework is a law.
A) False
B) True
  • 48. What is ethical hacking?
A) Hacking done to harm users
B) Hacking done with permission to find security weaknesses and help improve security, following rules and agreements
C) Hacking done secretly to steal data
D) Selling stolen passwords
E) Breaking into accounts for fun
  • 49. What does data privacy mean?
A) Sharing data with everyone
B) Deleting all data daily
C) Protecting personal and sensitive information so it is not accessed or shared without proper authorization
D) Making data public
E) Collecting as much data as possible
  • 50. Which of the following is a responsibility of a cybersecurity professional?
A) Ignoring policies
B) Hiding incidents
C) Sharing client data publicly
D) Using weak passwords
E) Keeping information confidential, following company policies, avoiding conflicts of interest, and reporting incidents properly
  • 51. A security analyst logs into a coworker's account without permission just to look around. How is this viewed?
A) It is a safety measure
B) It is ethical hacking
C) It is a normal part of the job
D) It is considered illegal and unethical because accessing an account without permission is unauthorized access
E) It is allowed if no data is taken
  • 52. True or False: Hacking into a system without permission is illegal.
A) True
B) False
  • 53. What is Wireless Network Security?
A) The protection of wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi, from unauthorized access, cyber threats, and data theft
B) Making Wi-Fi faster
C) Selling wireless devices
D) Extending the signal range
E) Installing more routers
  • 54. Which encryption standards are recommended for securing a Wi-Fi network?
A) Plain text
B) An open network
C) A shared public password
D) No encryption
E) WPA2 or WPA3, because they protect wireless access with strong encryption
  • 55. A fake Wi-Fi network appears with a name nearly identical to a cafĂ©'s real network. Which threat is this?
A) A strong password
B) A firmware update
C) A guest network
D) A rogue or fake access point, which is an unauthorized network that imitates a legitimate one
E) Eavesdropping
  • 56. A new router has just been installed. Which security measure is recommended?
A) Disable all security
B) Keep the default password
C) Share the password publicly
D) Turn off encryption
E) Change the default administrator password and keep devices updated with security updates
  • 57. Which practice helps keep different groups of users separate on a wireless network?
A) Creating separate guest, student, and staff networks so each group has only the access it needs
B) Turning off the router
C) Removing all passwords
D) Giving guests the staff password
E) Using one shared network for all
  • 58. Why are weak passwords a risk to wireless networks?
A) They slow down the router
B) They reduce battery life
C) They erase saved data
D) Easy-to-guess passwords increase the risk of unauthorized access to the network
E) They make the signal weaker
  • 59. What is the main purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
A) To increase Wi-Fi range
B) To block all advertisements
C) To make websites load faster
D) To create an encrypted tunnel between your device and a VPN server that protects your data and hides your real IP address
E) To store files online
  • 60. How does a VPN affect your IP address?
A) It leaves it unchanged
B) It publishes it online
C) The VPN server replaces your real IP address with its own public IP address
D) It deletes your device
E) It sells it
  • 61. An employee works from home and needs secure access to company files. Which VPN type fits best?
A) A Double VPN
B) No VPN at all
C) A Remote Access VPN, which connects individual users securely to a remote private network
D) A Site-to-Site VPN
E) A wireless printer
  • 62. A large business wants to connect multiple branch offices into one private network using routers. Which VPN type fits?
A) A Remote Access VPN
B) A Site-to-Site VPN, which connects entire networks using routers instead of apps on user devices
C) A Personal VPN
D) A Double VPN
E) A Mobile VPN
  • 63. Which VPN type is optimized for smartphones and tablets?
A) A Cloud VPN
B) A Double VPN
C) A Site-to-Site VPN
D) A Personal VPN
E) A Mobile VPN, which is designed to stay secure as the user switches between networks
  • 64. What is a Double VPN?
A) A VPN that encrypts half the data
B) A VPN that links two offices
C) Two phones on one VPN
D) A VPN that routes and encrypts traffic through two separate servers instead of just one
E) A VPN with two passwords
  • 65. Which VPN protocol is open-source, highly configurable, and considered the industry standard for maximum security?
A) PPTP
B) OpenVPN, which is open-source and highly configurable
C) L2TP
D) SSTP
E) SSH
  • 66. Which VPN protocol is lightweight and has a much smaller code base than older protocols?
A) IKEv2
B) L2TP
C) WireGuard, a newer protocol with a much smaller code base
D) SSTP
E) PPTP
  • 67. Which VPN protocol does not encrypt data on its own and is almost always paired with IPSec?
A) OpenVPN
B) WireGuard
C) SSTP
D) L2TP, which relies on IPSec to provide the encryption
E) IKEv2
  • 68. True or False: According to the VPN conclusion, a VPN makes you entirely anonymous online.
A) False
B) True
  • 69. In the CIA triad, what does Confidentiality mean?
A) Systems never go down
B) Data is always backed up
C) Data is deleted often
D) Everyone can view data
E) Only authorized users can access the information, keeping sensitive data protected from unauthorized people
  • 70. In the CIA triad, what does Integrity mean?
A) Data is hidden from everyone
B) Data remains accurate and unaltered whether it is in transit or in storage
C) Systems are always online
D) Data is deleted daily
E) Users are always logged in
  • 71. In the CIA triad, what does Availability mean?
A) Data is never changed
B) Only admins can log in
C) Data is kept secret
D) Systems shut down at night
E) Systems and data are accessible whenever they are legitimately needed by authorized users
  • 72. What is defense in depth?
A) Using a single password
B) Trusting all internal users
C) Protecting only the perimeter
D) Using multiple, overlapping layers of security so that if one layer fails, others still protect the system
E) Relying on one strong firewall
  • 73. An employee is given only the minimum access they need to do their job. Which security principle is being applied?
A) Defense in depth
B) Redundancy
C) Least privilege, where users, apps, and devices receive only the access they need
D) Open access
E) Zero access
  • 74. What is network segmentation used for?
A) Storing backups
B) Removing firewalls
C) Dividing the network into zones, such as VLANs and subnets, to limit how far an attacker can move
D) Increasing the number of users
E) Making Wi-Fi faster
  • 75. What is the main idea of Zero Trust?
A) Never trust, always verify: every user and device must be authenticated and authorized for each access request
B) Trust verified devices forever
C) Trust everyone inside the network
D) Trust only the firewall
E) Trust all employees
  • 76. A company wants to place its public web services in a buffer zone, separate from its internal network. Which component fits?
A) A VPN client
B) A DMZ, which acts as a buffer zone for public services
C) A SIEM
D) A password
E) A backup tape
  • 77. What does a SIEM platform do?
A) It collects logs from every zone, correlates events, detects anomalies, and supports incident response
B) It creates user accounts
C) It encrypts disks
D) It prints reports
E) It repairs hardware
  • 78. In AAA, what does Accounting do?
A) It logs activity for audit and forensics so that actions can be traced later
B) It verifies who the user is
C) It grants permissions
D) It encrypts data
E) It blocks traffic
  • 79. True or False: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework has five functions: Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover.
A) True
B) False
  • 80. What is the main focus of Network Application Security?
A) Identifying and fixing vulnerabilities in applications, which correspond to Common Weakness Enumerations (CWEs)
B) Managing office printers
C) Designing logos
D) Fixing broken cables
E) Selling licenses
  • 81. Which tools are listed for Network Application Security?
A) Backups only
B) Routers and switches
C) SAST, DAST, and IAST, which analyze application code and behavior for vulnerabilities
D) Wireshark and AirCrack
E) Firewalls only
  • 82. Which tools are listed for traditional Network Security?
A) SAST and DAST
B) Burp Suite only
C) SonarQube only
D) IAST only
E) Wireshark, AirCrack, and Metasploit, which focus on network-level testing
  • 83. Which risk is ranked #1 on the OWASP Top 10 as presented?
A) Injection
B) Cryptographic Failures
C) SSRF
D) Broken Access Control, where users can act outside their intended permissions
E) Insecure Design
  • 84. Which OWASP risk involves sensitive data not being properly protected in transit or at rest?
A) Broken Access Control
B) Cryptographic Failures, which can lead to exposure of passwords, health records, and personal data
C) Insecure Design
D) SSRF
E) Injection
  • 85. What is Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)?
A) A broken login page
B) A stolen password
C) A faulty server fan
D) An email scam
E) A flaw where a web app pulls data from a remote resource without validating the user-supplied URL
  • 86. What does a Web Application Firewall (WAF) do?
A) It repairs software
B) It encrypts email
C) It monitors and filters HTTP traffic at OSI layer 7, working like a reverse proxy that shields the server
D) It scans physical devices
E) It manages passwords
  • 87. What does Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) do?
A) It backs up databases
B) It scans Wi-Fi networks
C) It analyzes user behavior and application traffic at runtime and can terminate sessions that exploit weaknesses
D) It installs updates
E) It writes source code
  • 88. What is a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM)?
A) A list of staff members
B) A list of project costs
C) A comprehensive list of a software's components, including open-source and proprietary libraries and modules
D) A copy of the source code
E) A set of firewall rules
  • 89. What does "shift left" mean in DevSecOps?
A) Skipping testing
B) Integrating security earlier in the software development life cycle so vulnerabilities are cheaper and easier to fix
C) Removing developers
D) Testing only in production
E) Moving security to the end
  • 90. A vulnerable open-source library has a high CVSS score, but the application never invokes the vulnerable code. What do the slides say about its risk?
A) It must be ignored forever
B) The application must go offline
C) It must always be fixed first
D) It means a breach occurred
E) The CVSS score carries no real risk because the vulnerable code is not actually used
  • 91. True or False: Gray box testing uses limited internal access, such as a signed-in user's login credentials.
A) True
B) False
  • 92. What does OWASP stand for?
A) Open Worldwide Application Security Project
B) Open Web Server Policy
C) Online Web Access Security Plan
D) Official Web Safety Panel
E) Open Wireless App Standard
  • 93. What is the common mistake in input validation?
A) Validating on the server
B) Checking input only in the browser and not validating it again on the server
C) Rejecting invalid input
D) Using strong passwords
E) Checking the year entered
  • 94. What is the purpose of output encoding?
A) To create sessions
B) To check logins
C) To back up databases
D) To make user data safe before it is displayed on a webpage so it cannot run as code
E) To hash passwords
  • 95. What is a common mistake in authentication and password management?
A) Hashing passwords
B) Storing passwords in plain text instead of protecting them with appropriate password-hashing practices
C) Using secure sessions
D) Using strong passwords
E) Verifying credentials
  • 96. A student can view their own enrollment but cannot approve another student's enrollment. Which secure coding practice enforces this?
A) Cryptography
B) Input Validation
C) Output Encoding
D) Access Control, which checks what an authenticated user is allowed to do
E) Error Handling
  • 97. What is a common mistake in error handling and logging?
A) Failing safely
B) Logging failed logins
C) Showing stack traces, database details, or other sensitive technical information to users
D) Recording useful events
E) Showing a safe error message
  • 98. A production server still uses default credentials, unnecessary services, and development settings. Which practice has been ignored?
A) Input Validation
B) System Configuration, which secures the environment the application runs in
C) Output Encoding
D) Access Control
E) Session Management
  • 99. What is a common mistake in session management?
A) Leaving sessions active unnecessarily or failing to protect session identifiers
B) Creating a protected session
C) Ending sessions after logout
D) Validating the session
E) Using timeouts
  • 100. What is a common mistake in cryptographic practices?
A) Understanding the goal
B) Inventing your own encryption instead of using established, suitable cryptographic protection
C) Using secure channels
D) Managing keys securely
E) Protecting data
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