PES SS 3 Economics (Objective) Mock 3 Exam 2025/2026
  • 1. Points within a Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) indicate ____________.
A) optimum production levels
B) unattainable production levels
C) attainable and efficient production levels
D) attainable but inefficient production levels
  • 2. Which of the following is not a feature of labour?
A) Its reward is wages or salaries
B) It is an active factor
C) Its efficiency depends on its size
D) It is highly mobile
  • 3. The pursuit of private profits is a feature of ______________
A) Statutory economic
B) Command economic
C) Capitalist economic
D) Socialist economic
  • 4. A major feature of the socialist economic system is ______________
A) Freedom of choice for consumers
B) Private ownership of productive input
C) Determination of Price by market forces
D) Setting of production targets by public authorities
  • 5. If the budget on education is $50 m out of an annual national budget of $300 m. The sector of a pie chart representing education is _________.
A) 150°
B) 16.6°
C) 300°
D) 60°
  • 6. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in _______________.
A) Price of another product
B) Income of the buyer
C) Price of the product
D) Demand for the product
  • 7. When total revenue increases as price falls, the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is  ______________
A) One
B) Greater then one
C) Less then one
D) Zero
  • 8. If the quantity demanded of rice de- creased from 150 bags to 100 bags, the percentage change in quantity demanded is ____________.
A) 33.3%
B) 30.0%
C) 50.0%
D) 66.7%
  • 9. The law of demand will not hold when
A) Size of the production change
B) Incomes of consumers increase
C) Rare commodities
D) Normal goods are involved
  • 10. If the coefficient of price elasticity of supply of a commodity is 0.8, then supply is ____________
A) Perfectly elastic
B) fairly inelastic
C) perfectly inelastic
D) fairly elastic
  • 11. The negative slope of the demand curve is best explained by ____________.
A) consumer's choice
B) diminishing returns to scale
C) increasing returns to scale
D) diminishing marginal utility
  • 12. Minimum price legislation is used to protect the interests of ___________.
A) Consumers
B) Small scale producers
C) foreign companies.
D) Government
  • 13. Which of the following best explains diseconomies of scale? Increase in output causes the _______________.
A) firm to be de- stabilized
B) average cost to rise
C) marginal cost to fall
D) marginal revenue to fall
  • 14. In the short-run, a firm can increase output by ______________
A) increasing the size of its machines
B) changing its organizational structure
C) purchasing more equipment
D) increasing the quantity of raw materials
  • 15. The fixed cost of producing 100 units of a good is $600. If the variable cost is $400. the average total cost of one unit of the good is __________
A) $6
B) $8
C) $4
D) $10
  • 16. Firms in perfect competition break even in the long-run because of __________
A) more firms can enter the industry due to attractive prof its
B) profits are not enough to repay traders' loans
C) marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost at all levels
D) new firms can not enter the market due to copyright laws
  • 17. The government policy that encourages public corporations to operate profitably is ____________.
A) liberalization
B) commercialization
C) indigenization
D) nationalization
  • 18. Separation of ownership from control is more pronounced in a __________
A) constimer co- operative society
B) sole proprietorship
C) partnership
D) joint-stock company
  • 19. Warehousing of goods in the process of distribution is the function of __________.
A) Retailers
B) Department store
C) Supermarket
D) Wholesalers
  • 20. The supply of labour to an occupation will tend to rise when ____________
A) there are less monetary benefits
B) holiday entitlement is cut
C) welfare packages improve
D) unemployment benefit rises
  • 21. Commercial banks settle their inter-bank indebtedness through __________.
A) Stock exchange
B) central banks
C) merchant banks
D) development banks
  • 22. In determining the growth of a country's population, infant mortality is a component of _______________
A) net migration.
B) death rate
C) fertility rate.
D) immigration rate.
  • 23. The low productivity per worker in agriculture experienced in West African countries is due to _____________ .
A) the presence of many extension workers
B) the use of simple traditional implements
C) laziness on the part of farmers
D) the law of increasing returns to scale
  • 24. What will be the likely effect if agriculture is fully mechanized in West Africa?
A) Labour intensive method of farming will still be dominant
B) Governments will no longer be involved in agriculture
C) Less labour will be required on the farm
D) More jobs will be available for farm labourers
  • 25. National income estimates will be understated as a result of the activities of ___________
A) musicians
B) laundry women
C) housekeepers
D) subsistence farmers
  • 26. The function of money that enables credit purchases of goods and services is _____________
A) relative scarcity
B) store of value
C) standard for deferred payment
D) unit of account
  • 27. Supply of money is best defined as the __________.
A) amount of money spent on consumer goods
B) money in circulation plus bank deposits
C) money given out as loans to members of the public
D) amount of currency printed annually by the government.
  • 28. Capital market operators deal in the ____________.
A) sales and purchases of capital equipment
B) supply of and demand for long term loans for investment
C) supply of and demand for short term loans only
D) sales and purchases of treasury bills
  • 29. A commodity with perfectly inelastic demand has the burden of tax borne by __________.
A) the buyers alone
B) both the buyers and the government
C) both the sellers and the buyers
D) the government alone
  • 30. One indicator of the low level of cap ital formation in developing countries is ___________ .
A) high rate of household savings
B) low importation of consumer goods
C) low per capita income
D) high rate of investment
  • 31. Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resources?
A) Coal
B) Oil palm
C) Cocoa
D) Rubber
  • 32. The demand for a factor input as a result of the demand for it output is known as ____________
A) Complementary demand
B) Market demand
C) Competitive demand
D) Derived demand
  • 33. If the government stops subsidy on cocoa production, the supply curve of coca will ____________.
A) Shift to the right
B) Remain unchanged
C) Shift to the left
D) Become vertical
  • 34. The supply of light could be met using a candle, lantern and gas lamp. This is an example of a____________.
A) Abnormal supply
B) Complementary supply
C) Joint supply
D) Composite
  • 35. Industries are sometimes located in areas which are not profitable so as to ____________ .
A) Encourage rural urban migration
B) Be about external economies of scale
C) Be able to reap internal economies of scake
D) Be able to even out development
  • 36. The study of economics is mainly concerned with how to
A) make choice when resources are inadequate
B) produce all the goods needed by everyone
C) rank individuals' wants given the abundant resources
D) satisfy every member of all societies
  • 37. Resources are pooled for the mutual benefit of its members mainly in a
A) joint stock company
B) partnership
C) cooperative society
D) private company
  • 38. The total fixed cost curve is
A) vertical
B) downward sloping
C) horizontal
D) upward sloping
  • 39. A small scale firm located within an industrial estate will enjoy
A) government protection and funding
B) financial economies of scale
C) external economies of scale
D) technological economies of scale
  • 40. When job vacancies are publicized, the government is mainly trying to solve the problem of
A) frictional unemployment
B) residual unemployment
C) cyclical unemployment
D) technological unemployment
  • 41. An indication that there is inflation in a country is that
A) the same amount of money buys lower quantity of goods
B) there is a decrease in the demand for goods and services
C) there are too many goods in circulation
D) people prefer to lend than to borrow
  • 42. An example of government's recurrent expenditure is
A) electrification projects in rural areas
B) the cost of building a school
C) paying salaries of workers
D) purchase of new vehicles
  • 43. A fall in the price of a normal commodity which has elastic demand will result in
A) a fall in quantity demanded
B) an increase in revenue
C) a fall in demand
D) a decrease in revenue
  • 44. The dependency ratio of a country is the
A) people who are cared for by their extended families
B) number of children who depend on their parents for survival
C) the children and aged who rely on the active population for support
D) total active population who depend on government for survival
  • 45. When the demand for a commodity increases while supply remains unchanged, the equilibrium price and quantity will
A) decrease
B) remain constant
C) increase
D) turn negative
  • 46. Consumers have access to a variety of goods through the activities of the
A) retailers
B) advertising agencies
C) wholesalers
D) mass media
  • 47. The Malthusian theory of population is best illustrated when
A) food supply increases much faster than population growth
B) population increases much faster than food supply
C) the size of the population and available resources are equal
D) both population and food supply increase at the same rate
  • 48. The Net National Product (NNP) of a country is $50m while the depreciation allowance is $10m. The Gross National Product (GNP) is
A) $30m
B) $500m
C) $60m
D) $40m
  • 49. The rate of growth of population is
A) the number of immigrants plus number of births
B) the difference between birth rate and death rate
C) initial population plus number of births and net migration
D) birth rate less death rate plus net migration
  • 50. One of the factor that may not promote industrial development is
A) granting old firms tax exemptions
B) local firms entering into partnerships with foreign firms
C) granting capital to firms at reasonable interest rates
D) setting up industrial estates with modern amenities
  • 51. Many workers are employed in the agricultural sector of developing countries because
A) labour intensive method is mostly adopted
B) they practice mechanized system of farming
C) wages in the sector is high
D) abnormal profits are made
  • 52. Taxes levied on goods and services by government are called
A) corporate taxes
B) poll taxes
C) indirect taxes
D) direct taxes
  • 53. The most liquid asset among the following is
A) cash
B) cheque
C) bonds
D) shares
  • 54. Petrol and Kerosene are jointly obtained from crude oil. If the supply of petrol increases, the
A) supply of kerosene will fall
B) supply of kerosene will rise
C) cost of crude oil production has increased
D) supply of kerosene will remain unchanged
  • 55. The fixing of maximum prices by government is mainly on
A) imported capital goods
B) luxury goods
C) selected essential goods
D) inferior goods
  • 56. The marks obtained by 9 students in a class test are recorded below: 9, 8, 7, 5,7, 6, 8, 9 and 7. What is the median mark?
A) 7.5
B) 8
C) 7
D) 8.5
  • 57. Tariffs, quotas and embargoes are examples of
A) trade restriction policies
B) foreign exchange policies
C) fiscal policies
D) monetary policies
  • 58. A country is described as developing if
A) the population is decreasing
B) there is low labour supply
C) the contribution of tertiary sector to national income is high
D) the income per head is low
  • 59. Which of the following is not a problem facing Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)?
A) Production of the same commodities
B) Poor transportation and communication
C) Inadequate supply of labour
D) Language barriers
  • 60. An increase in a country's production capacity usually leads to economic
A) stability
B) growth
C) efficiency
D) development
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