A) Forensic Medicine B) Medical Jurisprudence C) All of the Above D) Legal Medicine
A) Medico - legal Expert B) Medical Examiner C) Medical Jurist D) All of the Above
A) all of these B) Health officers C) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Autopsic C) Medico legal autopsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Autopsic D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autopsy/Necropsy B) Medico-legal autopsy C) Autoptic D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Civil Law B) Remedial law C) Special law D) Criminal law
A) Crimes against property B) Circumstances affecting criminal liability C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against chastity
A) Algor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Rigor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Rigor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Livor Mortis
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Material Evidence B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Corroborative Evidence
A) Precipitin test B) Albumin test C) Alkaline test D) Acid hematin
A) Memories B) Tape recording them C) Photographing it D) Written interrogatories
A) Cordon the area B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Identity of the suspect D) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Punchured D) Hematoma
A) Contusion B) Punchured wound C) Abrasion D) Hematoma
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Hematoma D) Punctured wound
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Hematoma D) Punctured wound
A) Homicide B) Robbery C) Arrest D) Armed Robbery
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove C) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached D) The face appears softened
A) Lacerated wound B) Incised wound C) Defense wound D) Justifying circumstances
A) Serious physical injury B) Slight physical injury C) Mutilation D) Less serious physical injury
A) Hyper Livility B) Diffusion Livility C) Rigor mortis D) Hypostatics Livility
A) Virgo-intacta B) Demi-virginity C) Physical virginity D) Moral virginity
A) 48 hours death B) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension C) Livor mortis D) Primary flaccidity
A) 10-15 minutes B) 30-45 minutes C) 15-30 minutes D) 45-60 minutes
A) Putrefaction B) Carbolization C) Livor mortis D) Saponification
A) 48 hours B) 24 hours C) 36 hours D) 12 hours
A) Death, property damage B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Physical injuries and death
A) Pink B) Bright red C) yellow D) Violet
A) Electrical burn B) Thermal burn C) Radiation burn D) Friction burn
A) 13 years old B) 14 years old C) 15 years old D) 12 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) Limitations of the forensic examination C) All of these D) A non-resisting victim
A) Dolor B) Rubor C) Calor D) Tenor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Deactivation
A) Closed Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Mortal Wounds D) Non-Mortal Wounds
A) Punctured Wound B) Stab Wound C) Inscised Wound D) Lacerated Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 3-4 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Saponification B) Purge C) Mummification D) Maceration
A) Sadism B) Sado-masochism C) Fornication D) Masochism
A) Locus Minoris Resistancia B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Coup Injury D) Contre-Coup Injury
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) Murder B) Infanticide C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Homicide
A) Must be turned over to the police as evidence B) All of the above C) Must be buried or cremated with body D) Must be described and inventoried
A) Mercy Killing B) Active Euthanasia C) Euthanasia D) Passive Euthanasia
A) 3 hours B) 12 hours C) 6 hours D) 8 hours
A) Hanging B) Suffocation C) Asphyxia D) Strangulation
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Incised Wound D) Contusion
A) Carnal Knowledge B) Virginity C) Defloration D) Moral Virginity
A) Petechiae B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Close Wound
A) 12 inches B) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 25 inches
A) All of the above B) Witness accounts C) Circumstances of the death D) Last medical history
A) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic B) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper D) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper
A) Rule of Court B) Evidence C) Autoptic D) Real
A) Oralism B) Masochism C) Sadism D) Fetishism
A) Mannikinism B) Pygmalionism C) Narcissism D) Vampirism
A) Gerontophilia B) Necrophilia C) Autosexual D) Bestosexual
A) 3 to 4 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 5 to 6 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals C) All of the above D) Health officers
A) Post-mortem investigation B) Autopsy C) Crime scene investigation D) Exhumation
A) Pounding B) Exhumation C) Cremation D) Charring
A) Red B) Reddish-brown C) Black D) Clay
A) Florence Test B) Phenolphthalein Test C) Barberio Test D) Takayama Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Deoxy nucleic acid C) Deonatural acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) Physical Virginity B) False Physical Virginity C) True Physical Virginity D) Demi-Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Pretense of Physical Evidence B) Mutt and Jeff C) Extenuation D) Shifting the Blame
A) Corpus Delicti B) Tracing Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Associative Evidence
A) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. B) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. C) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. D) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement.
A) That it is material and relevant to the case. B) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) Qualities of a good surveillant. B) How to conduct surveillance of a place. C) How to detect foot surveillance D) Methods of shadowing.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Mercenary Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Tracing Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Modus Operandi (MO) D) Associative Evidence
A) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. B) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. C) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Triangulation Method B) Baseline Method C) Compass Point Method D) Rectangular Coordinates Method
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Direct Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Excited Utterance B) Confession C) Admission D) Dying Declaration
A) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. B) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Create a sensational visual record for media release.
A) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. B) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. C) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. D) Establish Rapport with the witness.
A) Comply with local traffic regulations. B) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Ensure they reach their destination on time.
A) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. D) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death.
A) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. B) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. C) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. D) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character.
A) Miranda Doctrine B) Modus Operandi C) Corpus Delicti D) Locard's Exchange Principle
A) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. B) Made in the presence of the victim's family. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. B) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. C) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Title B) Scale C) Compass Direction (North) D) Legend
A) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. B) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) A search method for large, open areas.
A) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. B) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. C) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. D) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. C) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. B) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. C) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. D) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) File of photographic images of known criminals. C) Database of modus operandi. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) There is only one suspect. B) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. C) The suspect is a hardened criminal. D) There is more than one suspect.
A) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. B) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. C) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. D) Draft the final report for the prosecutor.
A) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Official police databases. D) Government records and news items.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Dispose of incriminating evidence. C) Mark a location for a future meeting. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) Anti-Wiretapping Law. B) Revised Penal Code. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials.
A) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) long, narrow road. D) An approximately circular or oval open field. |