Cevide 2 - Quiz
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Relevant and material
C) Competent and credible
D) Material and voluntary
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Support witness credibility only
D) Confuse the issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Oral evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Demonstrative evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Testimonial evidence
B) The weakest form of proof
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Documentary proof
B) Circumstantial demonstration
C) Objects presented to the court
D) Statements given by witnesses under oath
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Submission of any copy
B) Presentation of the original document
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Oral testimony of document contents
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Oral contracts
B) Written contracts
C) Testimonies only
D) Electronic communications
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Oral declarations
B) Objects and materials
C) Written documents presented in court
D) Witness testimony
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
B) Hearsay statements are valid
C) Admissions apply to all
D) Confidential evidence is protected
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Silence is never an admission
B) Only verbal admissions are valid
C) Failure to deny implies consent
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
B) Prove innocence by silence
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Withhold testimony
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Common interest
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Mutual understanding
D) Lack of relevance
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) During or after marriage
B) Only if requested by prosecution
C) Only if both spouses testify
D) Only before marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) By any relative
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Teachers from testifying
B) A child from testifying against parents
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) Priests from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Gossip about religious leaders
B) Public confessions
C) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Protect hospital reputation
B) Prevent medical records in court
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Disallow expert witnesses
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Competency rule
C) Original document rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Emotional
B) Relevant and properly identified
C) Based on speculation
D) Cited by counsel
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made after survival
B) Written by another person
C) Made casually before death
D) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Authorized by both parties
D) Unavailable
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is intelligent only
B) Can read and write
C) Is related to the accused
D) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Testimony about another’s guilt
B) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
C) Privileged statement
D) Declaration against interest
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Out-of-court statement
B) Admission made in casual conversation
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Testimony made in trial
C) Confession under oath
D) Admission made out of court
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Any legally qualified person to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Only police officers to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have personal knowledge
B) They are court employees
C) They are relatives
D) They have special knowledge or skill
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Age of samples
B) Court preference
C) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
D) Source reliability only
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Forced
B) Oral or informal
C) Anonymous
D) Made under torture
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Strength of documents
B) Quantity of witnesses
C) Public opinion
D) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Based on rumor
C) Always admissible
D) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
B) Admit all statements
C) Support confessions
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Cross-examination
B) Character evidence
C) Opinion testimony
D) Dying declaration
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Privileged declaration
B) Judicial admission
C) Confession
D) Extra-judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Inadmissible
B) Considered documentary evidence
C) Valid if recorded
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Support credibility
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Indicate intent
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Admissibility of confessions
C) Witness credibility
D) Integrity of physical evidence
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lacks knowledge
B) Lies under oath
C) Refuses to testify
D) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The judge
B) The witness
C) The prosecution
D) The defense
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Substantial evidence
B) Probable cause
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Judicial declaration
B) Confession
C) Dying Inside to Hold you
D) Dying Declaration
E) Admission
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge
B) Judge Nono
C) Complainant
D) Expert
E) Witness
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Competency
B) Credibility
C) Intelligence
D) Reliability
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Physician Privilege
C) Priest Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Client-Lawyer Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Physician-Patient Privilege
E) Professional Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spousal Privilege
B) Teacher-Student Privilege
C) Doctor-Patient Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Priest-Penitent Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Exa Sec To
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Best Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Opinion Rule
B) Admission by Silence
C) Parol rule evidence
D) Declaration Against Interest
E) Dying against declaration
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
B) Depende
C) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
D) Yes comback
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) A company's internal memo
D) personal diary
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
C) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
B) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
C) It is only used to impeach a witness.
D) It is always inadmissible in court.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
B) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
C) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
D) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are never admissible in court.
B) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
B) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
C) All of the above
D) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
B) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
C) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
D) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
B) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
C) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
D) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
B) Internal memos of a private company.
C) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
D) Private contracts between individuals
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A catalog of products for sale online.
B) A list of items sold in a store.
C) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
D) A list of businesses registered with the government.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
B) A private diary entry
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A handwritten letter between two individuals
E) A grocery list kept in personal records
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
D) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
E) Personal letters exchanged between friends
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) notary public
B) The court judge
C) Only the document creator
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
B) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
C) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Notarization of the document by an attorney
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was found in a government office
B) It was signed in front of a notary public
C) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
E) It was sent by registered mail
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
B) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been lost for more than 30 years
D) It has been altered in any way
E) It was signed by an unknown individual
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A certified handwriting analyst
B) A government official
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) Any witness who has seen the person write before
E) Only the person whose handwriting it is
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Having read similar documents before
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Seeing the person write only once
D) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
B) Private evidence needing verification
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
E) Inadmissible unless notarized
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Notarized within the Philippines
B) Verified by at least two witnesses
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is a public document
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) None of the above
D) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) A private individual designated by the parties involved
D) Any individual who has access to the document
E)   The head of a department
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) Only with permission from the president
B) When the office is undergoing renovations
C) For personal inspection by the document owner
D) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) A private notary
B) An authorized public official
C) An authorized public official
D) Any court officer
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To allow easy access to the public
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
E) To make it available for historical records
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By prioritizing the first provision.
D) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
E) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The court should disregard both provisions.
E) The general provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) Without regard to any external factors.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
B) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
C) According to their primary and general meaning only.
D) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
B) The latter of the two terms.
C) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
D) The term that appears first.
E) The latter of the two terms
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When both parties request an interpreter.
C) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
E) When it is written in ordinary language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
B) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
E) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
B) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
C) Existence, termination, power, and loss
D) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Documentary evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Real evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By a forensic expert's analysis
C) By comparing it to other photographs
D) By the photographer's testimony
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Assessing the credibility of a witness
B) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
C) Evaluating the weight of evidence
D) Determining the admissibility of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To examine the crime scene
B) To identify the accused
C) To determine the cause of death
D) To verify the authenticity of evidence
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