A) Unity of Command B) Evidence-Based Planning C) Flexibility D) Centralization
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Evaluation B) Adaptability C) Direction D) Control
A) Balanced Scorecard B) Situational Leadership Model C) Quality Management System D) Performance Governance System (PGS)
A) Following the same route daily B) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security C) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Tactical B) Operational C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Organizational participation C) Political alignment D) Command authority
A) Policy Plan B) Operational Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Through punitive measures for non-performance B) Through centralized command only C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through measurable and transparent objectives
A) Standing Plan B) Tactical Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Control B) Motivation C) Command D) Coordination
A) Coordination B) Segregation C) Decentralization D) Secrecy
A) Individual performance only B) Participative governance C) Centralized supervision D) Authoritarian leadership
A) Record disciplinary actions B) Measure organizational and individual performance C) Allocate resources for intelligence D) Identify police misconduct
A) Operations remain classified B) Plans are fixed and unchangeable C) Only top officers make revisions D) Continuous improvement and adaptation
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations C) Tactical plans focus on national objectives D) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions
A) Strategic Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Operational Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Deterrence B) Partnership C) Transformation D) Accountability
A) It increases bureaucracy B) It focuses only on leadership goals C) It limits officer discretion D) It measures output and transparency
A) Personnel control B) Procedural authority C) Strategic alignment D) Policy compliance
A) Non-graphical indicator B) Thematic mapping C) Statistical modeling D) Spatial regression
A) Social crime mapping B) Geographic profiling C) Predictive policing D) Random patrols
A) Spatial regression B) Thematic mapping C) Hotspot analysis D) Trend analysis
A) Topographic B) Choropleth C) Graphic regression D) Thematic
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Forecasting public celebrations D) Determining police salaries
A) Randomized control patrol B) Tactical crime mapping C) Strategic redeployment D) Spatial diffusion
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It focuses solely on statistical data C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Non-graphical evaluation B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Temporal analysis D) Spatial regression
A) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences B) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations C) Both measure community satisfaction D) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only
A) Thematic analysis B) Spatial mapping C) Predictive simulation D) Non-graphical indicators
A) Area mapping B) Situational correlation C) Spatial regression D) Environmental regression
A) It only works for rural areas B) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It eliminates the need for statistics
A) Isoline map B) Dynamic time-series map C) Static hotspot map D) Non-graphical table
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Conduct spatial correlation C) Identify policy gaps D) Produce non-graphical outputs
A) Predictive analytics B) Routine mapping C) Reactive patrol D) Manual charting
A) Feedback B) Situation analysis C) Implementation D) Resource allocation
A) Contingency Plan B) Tactical Deployment Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Patrol Plan
A) Inter-agency collaboration B) Hierarchical supervision C) Operational planning D) Intelligence secrecy
A) PCG B) PNP C) NBI D) BID
A) Resource control B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Risk assessment
A) Evaluation phase B) Prevention C) Coordination D) Initial planning
A) Unity of Direction B) Unity of Command C) Chain of Command D) Coordination
A) Operational B) Tactical C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Command centralization B) Partnership policing C) Reactive operations D) Intelligence gathering
A) Inter-agency synergy B) Jurisdictional independence C) Routine investigation D) Legal enforcement
A) Efficiency B) Proportionality C) Security prioritization D) Safety first
A) Command isolation B) Communication C) Hierarchical control D) Inter-sectoral coordination
A) Revision B) Improvement C) Control D) Implementation
A) Adaptive planning B) Standardized procedure C) Narrow coordination D) Decentralized control
A) Objective formulation B) Policy integration C) Strategic alignment D) Tactical programming
A) Evaluation B) Control C) Implementation D) Testing
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Unified command and coordination C) Increased jurisdictional conflict D) Duplication of effort
A) Chain of command B) Coordination and synchronization C) Specialization D) Task delegation
A) To celebrate success B) To evaluate performance and identify gaps C) To assign blame for failures D) To finalize reports only
A) Coordination plan B) Crisis management C) Command instruction D) Information gathering
A) To increase police presence only B) To deter offenders by stricter laws C) To rely on surveillance alone D) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Target hardening C) Maintenance D) Natural surveillance
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime C) It replaces human patrols D) It records officer attendance
A) Open public plazas B) Dark alleys C) Fences and designated entry points D) Large, unsupervised spaces
A) Formal control B) Natural surveillance C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Traditional mapping B) Random patrol C) Human-based observation D) Data-driven deployment
A) Manual plotting B) Predictive GIS analysis C) Static mapping D) Reactive mapping
A) Target hardening B) Natural surveillance C) Maintenance D) Access control
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Increasing police checkpoints C) Reducing property lines D) Eliminating open areas
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones C) Close all schools temporarily D) Conduct random arrests
A) It focuses only on offender data B) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow C) It eliminates paperwork D) It measures public satisfaction
A) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety B) Limit police activity C) Expand commercial property D) Reduce government spending
A) Reduce manpower B) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders C) Replace detectives D) Avoid manual investigation
A) Target hardening B) Situational design C) Crime prevention through design D) Environmental aesthetics
A) Officer scheduling B) Administrative filing C) Predictive precision D) Political decision-making
A) Reducing community involvement B) Replacing leadership functions C) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making D) Eliminating all crimes
A) Hidden alleys B) Isolated parking areas C) Well-lit open spaces D) Narrow blind streets
A) Population balance B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Bureaucratic control D) Economic zoning
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Demographic analysis C) Statistical sampling D) Population profiling
A) Randomized response strategy B) Manual data analysis C) Traditional guesswork D) Application of data-informed operational planning
A) Double jeopardy B) Due process C) Equal protection D) Probable cause
A) Right against unreasonable detention B) Right to privacy C) Right to counsel D) Right to confrontation
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree C) Stop and Frisk D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Probable Cause Doctrine C) Exclusionary Rule D) Doctrine of Implied Consent
A) Warrant Clause B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Rule on Evidence
A) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) B) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) C) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) D) RA 6975 (DILG Act)
A) The suspect’s immediate interrogation B) Search of residence C) Media exposure D) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement
A) Right to privacy B) Right to bail C) Right to confrontation D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It targets political groups B) It is done secretly C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It involves random vehicle searches
A) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine B) In flagrante delicto C) Consent Search Doctrine D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Preventive detention B) Civil liability C) Non-bailable offense D) Due process violation
A) The right against unlawful search and seizure B) The right to counsel C) The right to speedy trial D) The right to free travel
A) Right to privacy B) Right to bail C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to due process
A) A witness B) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice C) A barangay official D) The arresting officer’s superior
A) Lawful exercise of police power B) Due process C) Separation of powers D) Proportionality
A) Certiorari B) Quo Warranto C) Habeas Corpus D) Injunction
A) Republic Act No. 8551 B) Republic Act No. 9165 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 6975
A) Reasonable necessity of means employed B) Probable cause principle C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Plain view rule
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is valid if the officer signs it C) It is inadmissible due to rights violation D) It is admissible if recorded
A) Right to silence B) Right to travel C) Freedom of speech and expression D) Right to privacy
A) Exclusionary rule B) Rules on Criminal Procedure C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Miranda doctrine
A) RA 8551 B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 7438
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Presumption of Regularity C) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Article II, Section 1 B) Article III, Section 12 C) Article III, Section 2 D) Article VI, Section 11
A) Police media cooperation B) Public display for transparency C) Summary publicity for deterrence D) Confidentiality and respect for due process |