Criminal Procedure and Court Testimony ALPHA 1
  • 1. The relevance of the study of practice court is to criminology is.
A) Acquaintance with court room conduct and trial procedures
B) All of the above
C) Train criminologist how to testify effectively and properly
D) Familiarization with court personnel and legal forms
  • 2. The usual role of police officers during judicial proceedings.
A) To protect the accused
B) To act as an expert witness
C) To protect the judge
D) To serve as a witness
  • 3. This occurs when the judge enters the court room and the clerk or bailiff announces his presence.
A) Arraignment
B) Order of trial
C) Roll call of cases
D) Call to order
  • 4. When the call to order has been undertaken, it is an indication that.
A) All must rise
B) The court is in session
C) All of the above
D) All must be silent
  • 5. Which among the following is not a court personnel?
A) Policeman
B) Stenographer
C) Interpreter
D) Clerk of court
  • 6. What is the main purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To govern criminal proceedings
B) To set police salaries
C) To regulate contracts
D) To establish crimes
  • 7. The prosecutor in a criminal case would usually utter in roll call.
A) "For the people your honor, ready"
B) "For the state your honor, ready"
C) "For the accused your honor, ready"
D) "For the plaintiff your honor, ready"
  • 8. It is a list of cases usually placed or posted on the door of a trial court.
A) Calendar
B) Roll call of cases
C) All of these
D) Call to order
  • 9. Trials and court sessions are usually.
A) Open to the public
B) Exclusive to the litigants and their relatives
C) Open to the members of the bar
D) Exclusive for the litigants
  • 10. Who generally issues an arrest warrant?
A) Witness
B) Judge
C) Prosecutor
D) Police officer
  • 11. Before giving his testimony the witness must.
A) Undertake the witness oath
B) Must pledge to tell the truth
C) Must pray for truthful answers
D) Must sign his affidavit
  • 12. A procedure wherein the case number is called and the litigants represented by counsel should signify their readiness for trial.
A) Call to order
B) Marking of exhibits
C) Witness oath
D) Roll call of cases
  • 13. Primary duty of the prosecutor.
A) To acquit the accused
B) To prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt
C) To see to it that due process is observed
D) To secure justice
  • 14. What does bail primarily help secure?
A) Appearance of the accused in court
B) Automatic acquittal
C) Dismissal of charges
D) Payment of court salaries
  • 15. Another lawyer hired by the victim is designated as.
A) Public prosecutor
B) Counsel de officio
C) Counsel for the defense
D) Private prosecutor
  • 16. When an objection has been made to the testimony of the witness and the judge orders that it be sustained, the witness.
A) Is allowed to continue and answer
B) Is instructed to sit down
C) Is instructed to get out of the witness stand
D) Is not allowed to answer the question directed by counsel
  • 17. The question, "when did you first meet the accused" is an example of a.
A) Re-cross examination
B) Direct examination
C) Cross examination
D) Re-direct question
  • 18. After the evidence of the defense is presented, the next step for the order of trial is.
A) Rebuttal evidence
B) Cross examination
C) Evidence for the prosecution
D) Sur-rebuttal evidence
  • 19. It is usually used to test the credibility of the witness and leading questions may be allowed.
A) Re-cross examination
B) Re-direct examination
C) Direct examination
D) Cross examination
  • 20. It is used to establish facts wherein leading questions are not allowed.
A) Re-cross examination
B) Re-direct examination
C) Direct examination
D) Cross examination
  • 21. A person named and appointed by the court to defend an absentee defendant in suit which the appointment is made.
A) Attorney ad Hoc
B) Attorney at law
C) Counsel de officio
D) Attorney of record
  • 22. Who represents the State in prosecuting a criminal case?.
A) Court interpreter
B) Public prosecutor
C) Defense counsel
D) Court stenographer
  • 23. The counsel on either side of the litigated action who is charges with the principal management and direction of party's case.
A) Attorney in fact
B) Attorney ad Hoc
C) House counsel
D) Lead Counsel
  • 24. Literally it means a friend of the court, a person with strong interest in or views on the subject matter of an action but not a party to it.
A) House counsel
B) Amicus Curiae
C) Attorney in fact
D) Counsel de officio
  • 25. What is the function of a defense lawyer?
A) To decide the verdict
B) To sentence the accused
C) To issue warrants
D) To protect the accused's legal rights
  • 26. A case involving murder is filed in the Municipal Trial Court due to a clerk’s error. As the judge, what should you do?
A) Dismiss for lack of jurisdiction
B) Transfer to the Regional Trial Court
C) Proceed with trial to avoid delay
D) Forward to the Court of Appeals
  • 27. What is the presumption of innocence?
A) The accused must prove guilt
B) The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty
C) The complainant is always correct
D) Every accused is automatically released
  • 28. A barangay captain faces a complaint for falsification of a public document. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 29. What is the purpose of a preliminary investigation?
A) To determine whether there is sufficient ground to hold the respondent for trial
B) To conduct cross-examination at trial
C) To impose imprisonment
D) To decide the final verdict
  • 30. What is a subpoena?
A) An arrest record
B) A search warrant
C) A final judgment
D) A legal order requiring a person to appear or produce documents
  • 31. What is a search warrant?
A) A judicial order authorizing a search under specified conditions
B) A notice of appeal
C) An order to convict
D) A witness statement
  • 32. What is the purpose of a warrant of arrest?
A) To release seized evidence
B) To authorize the arrest of a person
C) To dismiss a complaint
D) To acquit an accused
  • 33. What is a plea of guilty?
A) Request for bail
B) Appeal against conviction
C) Admission of guilt to the charge
D) Denial of the charge
  • 34. An appeal from the MTC in a criminal case should be filed before.
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Court of Appeals
C) RTC
D) Supreme Court
  • 35. What is the purpose of a trial?
A) To evaluate evidence and determine the case
B) To replace the complaint
C) To guarantee conviction
D) To determine police promotions
  • 36. When a juvenile offender is charged with robbery with homicide, where must the case be filed?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Juvenile Justice Board
C) MTC
D) Family Court (RTC branch)
  • 37. What is the main purpose of witness testimony?
A) To provide relevant information under oath
B) To replace the judge
C) To impose punishment
D) To guarantee acquittal
  • 38. What does an oath require from a witness?
A) A commitment to tell the truth
B) A promise to avoid all questions
C) A promise to support the prosecutor
D) An agreement to convict the accused
  • 39. A case for estafa involves ₱1.9 million. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) CA
B) RTC
C) MTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 40. What is perjury?
A) Requesting legal counsel
B) Making a willfully false statement under oath in circumstances covered by law
C) Filing a lawful appeal
D) Refusing a private invitation
  • 41. The jurisdiction of courts is determined by.
A) Nature of the offense
B) Law at the time of filing
C) Supreme Court circulars
D) Both Law at the time of filing and Nature of the offense
  • 42. What is hearsay evidence generally?
A) A document authenticated in court
B) An out-of-court statement offered to prove the truth of what it asserts, subject to exceptions
C) Evidence personally observed by the witness
D) Testimony based on personal knowledge
  • 43. A police officer filed a criminal complaint directly with the RTC instead of the Office of the Prosecutor. As judge, what should you do?
A) Treat the case as a private complaint
B) Proceed with arraignment
C) Dismiss the case for lack of jurisdiction
D) Order the police to file before the prosecutor’s office
  • 44. In criminal procedure, when does a case officially begin against an accused?
A) Upon filing of the information in court
B) Upon issuance of subpoena
C) Upon filing of the complaint
D) Upon arrest
  • 45. What is leading question?
A) A question that suggests the answer
B) A question without relevance
C) A question requiring a written answer
D) A question asked only by a judge
  • 46. The essence of criminal procedure is.
A) To secure justice and due process
B) To favor the accused
C) To convict the guilty
D) To protect state power
  • 47. When the prosecutor files an information without preliminary investigation in a required case, what right is violated?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to bail
C) Right to due process
D) Right to counsel
  • 48. Which of the following is not a purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To ensure justice is done
B) To provide a fair trial
C) To protect the rights of the accused
D) To secure the conviction of the guilty
  • 49. In criminal procedure, the rule of prospective application of procedural laws means.
A) They can cure past errors
B) They can be retroactive if favorable to accused
C) Laws apply only to future cases
D) They affect substantive rights
  • 50. Who rules on objections during trial?
A) Judge
B) Court reporter
C) Complainant
D) Arresting officer
  • 51. What is an exhibit in court?
A) An item or document offered as evidence
B) A type of sentence
C) A witness's personal opinion only
D) A court employee
  • 52. A criminal case was filed against two accused. One died before arraignment. What should the court do?
A) Dismiss as to the deceased accused
B) Proceed against bothB.
C) Continue case and note death after trial
D) Suspend proceedings
  • 53. The doctrine of “judicial notice” allows a court to.
A) Require expert testimony
B) Apply foreign laws
C) Take knowledge of facts without proof
D) Admit evidence automatically
  • 54. A motion to dismiss based on lack of probable cause was filed after arraignment. What rule applies?
A) Converted to demurrer to evidence
B) Filed at any time
C) Waived right
D) Must be resolved immediately
  • 55. What is the purpose of an evidence marking?
A) To dismiss a charge
B) To replace authentication
C) To identify an item or document for the proceedings
D) To declare guilt
  • 56. What is the best description of “due process” in criminal procedure?
A) Speedy resolution
B) Opportunity to be heard
C) Access to counsel
D) Conviction after trial
  • 57. A case was filed for slight physical injuries. The offended party and accused later settled amicably. What should the court do?
A) Acquit automatically
B) Refer to barangay for conciliation
C) Dismiss since it’s a private offense
D) Proceed to trial
  • 58. A criminal procedure rule that allows an accused to admit guilt for a lesser offense is known as.
A) Plea bargaining
B) Conditional pardon
C) Compromise
D) Mitigating admission
  • 59. The accused is charged for murder but information states no qualifying circumstance. The court convicts for homicide. This shows.
A) Violation of due process
B) Judicial discretion
C) Amendment after verdict
D) Application of variance doctrine
  • 60. What is authentication of evidence?
A) Establishing that evidence is what it is claimed to be
B) Hiding evidence from the court
C) Automatically admitting every document
D) Destroying evidence
  • 61. A confession was signed by an accused without counsel. What is the effect?
A) Valid because voluntarily signed
B) Inadmissible as violation of rights
C) Admissible if notarized
D) Valid if signed before police
  • 62. The accused wants to defend himself personally instead of through a lawyer. The court should.
A) Allow it if he knowingly waives counsel
B) Require standby counsel
C) Deny it outright
D) Proceed with appointed counsel
  • 63. When the court prevents an accused from presenting evidence for the defense, this violates.
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to due process
C) Right to speedy trial
D) Right to remain silent
  • 64. An accused was detained for 10 years without trial. This constitutes a violation of.
A) Right to due process
B) Right to speedy trial
C) Habeas corpus rule
D) Right to equal protection
  • 65. What is the chain of custody?
A) The process of sentencing
B) The schedule of hearings
C) The documented handling and transfer of evidence
D) The list of court employees
  • 66. A trial proceeds despite absence of counsel for the accused. The conviction will be.
A) Suspended pending appeal
B) Valid if accused agreed
C) Void for violation of constitutional rights
D) Valid if evidence strong
  • 67. Why is chain of custody important?
A) It helps establish the identity and integrity of evidence
B) It replaces witness testimony
C) It guarantees conviction
D) It eliminates the need for laboratory testing
  • 68. If a public trial endangers witnesses, the court may.
A) Proceed publicly as mandated
B) Seal all records permanently
C) Conduct in-camera trial with justification
D) Suspend proceedings
  • 69. What does reasonable doubt mean?
A) Automatic proof of innocence
B) A doubt based on reason and evidence, not mere speculation
C) Absolute certainty is required
D) Any imaginary possibility
  • 70. An accused was acquitted but later re-arrested for the same offense under a different case number. This violates.
A) Speedy trial
B) Equal protection
C) Due process
D) Double jeopardy
  • 71. What is a conviction?
A) A witness affidavit
B) A dismissal of every complaint
C) A subpoena
D) A judgment finding the accused guilty
  • 72. The prosecution presents evidence not included in the information. The defense objects. What should the court do?
A) Allow if favorable to accused
B) Admit for completeness
C) Reject for being beyond the charge
D) Order amendment
  • 73. What is an appeal?
A) A witness oath
B) An arrest without a warrant
C) A request for review of a decision by a higher court
D) A preliminary investigation
  • 74. The defense lawyer was asleep during crucial testimony. This results in.
A) Contempt of court only
B) Mistrial and violation of right to effective counsel
C) No effect if evidence strong
D) Waiver of cross-examination
  • 75. The right to bail ceases when.
A) Trial is delayed
B) Bail bond expires
C) Evidence of guilt is strong in a capital offense
D) Case is appealed
  • 76. What is a judgment?
A) The court's decision resolving the case or an issue
B) A witness's guess
C) A search of a residence
D) A police interview
  • 77. Police officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant for an alleged theft committed two days earlier. The arrest is.
A) Invalid for lack of immediate pursuit
B) Valid if with barangay clearance
C) Valid if suspect admits guilt
D) Valid hot pursuit
  • 78. Police saw a man holding a gun in a dark alley and arrested him. The arrest is valid under.
A) Administrative arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
  • 79. A warrantless arrest made by a private citizen of a fleeing robber is valid when.
A) He has personal suspicion
B) It occurs at night
C) The robber is described by police
D) Crime was committed in his presence
  • 80. Search of a house based only on verbal order of police chief is.
A) Allowed during curfew
B) Valid if consented to
C) Valid under urgency
D) Invalid and violates constitutional rights
  • 81. Seized evidence during an unlawful search is admissible only if.
A) Accused is guilty
B) Evidence is crucial
C) None of the above
D) Accused waives objection
  • 82. The exclusionary rule states that.
A) Illegally obtained evidence must be excluded
B) Only confessions need to be excluded
C) All evidence is admissible
D) All confessions are admissible
  • 83. What is a stipulation of facts?
A) An agreement by the parties on certain facts
B) An arrest warrant
C) A witness's rumor
D) A judge's personal opinion
  • 84. A search warrant that fails to particularly describe the items to be seized is.
A) Valid if witness testified
B) Void for generality
C) Valid if supported by probable cause
D) Valid if items are criminal in nature
  • 85. The right violated when a home is entered without a warrant or consent is.
A) Right to privacy only
B) Right against unreasonable searches
C) Right to counsel
D) None
  • 86. A warrantless arrest based solely on anonymous text messages is.
A) Valid for probable cause
B) Valid if confirmed later
C) Allowed under “Stop and Frisk”
D) Invalid for lack of personal knowledge
  • 87. A police officer lawfully arrested a drug suspect and searched his pockets. The search is.
A) Valid as incidental to arrest
B) Unreasonable
C) Requires written consent
D) Needs warrant
  • 88. A warrant issued by an unauthorized judge is.
A) Irregular but valid
B) Valid if executed
C) Void and inadmissible
D) Curable by execution
  • 89. A search warrant must be issued upon.
A) Anonymous report
B) Police recommendation
C) Mere suspicion
D) Probable cause personally determined by the judge
  • 90. A police officer searched a cellphone without a warrant. The search is valid only if.
A) Phone is expensive
B) Consent was freely given
C) Officer suspects drug use
D) Owner was arrested
  • 91. A suspect arrested under hot pursuit was tortured for confession. What rule applies?
A) Exclusionary rule on coerced confessions
B) Stop and frisk rule
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Res gestae
  • 92. What should a witness do when they do not understand a question?
A) Remain silent forever
B) Ask for clarification
C) Guess the answer
D) Change the subject
  • 93. When is a preliminary investigation mandatory?
A) Only for capital offenses
B) For all criminal cases
C) When offense is punishable by at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment
D) Optional at prosecutor’s discretion
  • 94. What is personal knowledge in testimony?
A) Information invented by counsel
B) Knowledge gained through the witness's own senses or experiences
C) Information learned only from rumors
D) Information read from an unrelated document
  • 95. If a complaint is filed directly in court without barangay conciliation when required, the case should be.
A) Proceeded with immediately
B) Suspended until conciliation
C) Dismissed for lack of cause of action
D) Referred to prosecutor
  • 96. Which case is not covered by the Barangay Justice System?
A) Slight physical injuries
B) Grave coercion between same barangay residents
C) Murder
D) Oral defamation
  • 97. The barangay settlement has the same effect as.
A) Plea bargain
B) Police blotter
C) Judgment of the court
D) Recommendation
  • 98. What is an affidavit?
A) An arrest warrant
B) A written statement sworn or affirmed before an authorized person
C) An oral objection
D) A final court judgment
  • 99. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to.
A) Convict the guilty
B) Serve as trial substitute
C) Determine probable cause before trial
D) Collect evidence
  • 100. When an inquest prosecutor finds illegal arrest, he must.
A) File case anyway
B) Order immediate release
C) Require affidavit
D) Refer to court
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