A) NBI B) BFP C) PDEA D) PNP
A) BJMP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BFP
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Defend the accused in criminal cases C) Investigate fire-related incidents D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court C) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) BuCor B) PNP C) NBI D) BJMP
A) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures B) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement C) Only the rich can access fair trials D) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases
A) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint B) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence C) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge D) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
A) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain at home during investigation D) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning
A) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation B) Sharing opinions online about political issues C) Expressing religious publicly D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
A) Writ of Mandamus B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Amparo D) Writ of Prohibition
A) Extraterritoriality B) Territoriality C) Prospectivity D) Generality
A) The act is done without consent B) The act is performed through negligence C) The act is performed with deliberate intent D) The act is done by accident
A) Complex crime B) Continuing crime C) Frustrated felony D) Impossible crime
A) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime B) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime C) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it D) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act
A) Proposal B) Instigation C) Conspiracy D) Provocation
A) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree B) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others C) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony D) The offender already begins executing does not agree
A) Accomplice B) Principal C) Accessory D) Instigator
A) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts B) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
A) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is fine only D) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal
A) Impossible B) Consummated C) Frustrated D) Attempted
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Insanity
A) Exempt from criminal liability B) Criminally liable as a principal C) Criminally liable as an accomplice D) Liable as an accessory
A) Justifying circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Exempting circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Escaped of the accused B) Amnesty granted by the government C) Filling of an appeal D) Delay of trial
A) It transfers liability to the heirs B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It suspends the criminal liability D) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability
A) It becomes extinguished B) It is suspended until review C) It is transferred to another jurisdiction D) It is reduced but not removed
A) Prescription of crime B) Service of sentence C) Conditional pardon D) Death of the offender
A) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission B) The offender took advantage of public position C) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation D) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Absence of weapon used C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Relationship between the offender and victim
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing of ones parent C) Killing with cruelty D) Killing by means of poison
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Parricide D) infanticide
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Absence of weapon used C) Lack of intent to kill D) Treachery or evident premeditation
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of one's parent
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Homicide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Abortion
A) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation B) There is consent and the woman is of legal age C) The victim is over 18 and married D) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse
A) The injury heals immediately B) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days C) The injury requires no medical attention D) The injury causes death
A) Serious physical injuries B) Less serious physical injuries C) Attempted homicide D) Slight physical injuries
A) Reckless imprudence B) Attempted homicide C) Illegal discharge of firearm D) Alarm and scandal
A) Theft is committed only by strangers B) Both involve taking property with intent to gain C) Robbery requires that the property be of high value D) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not
A) Brigandage B) Estafa C) Qualified theft D) Robbery in band
A) Taking property without violence B) Using force to steal from another C) Damaging property with intent to annoy D) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit
A) Robbery B) Estafa C) Malicious Mischief D) Grave Threats
A) Grave coercion B) Serious illegal detention C) Unlawful arrest D) Light coercion
A) Estafa B) Unlawful arrest C) Grave threats D) Grave coercion
A) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual B) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant C) Detaining a person to secure testimony D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. B) PD 532 covers only government vessels. C) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. D) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters.
A) Illegal search B) Unlawful arrest C) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities D) Arbitrary detention
A) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance B) Malversation of funds C) Infidelity in the custody of documents D) Direct bribery
A) Enter residences only with a valid warrant B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) An oral statement attacking a person's character. B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. C) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. D) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt.
A) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Simple slander B) Intriguing against honor C) Direct assault D) Slander by deed
A) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. B) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. C) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Concubinage B) Illegal marriage C) Adultery D) Bigamy
A) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. B) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. C) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution C) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Peaceful protest without violence B) Criticizing the government on social media C) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government D) Armed rebellion by military officers
A) Grave coercion B) Frustrated homicide C) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries D) Physical injuries only
A) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A store owner posts a sale announcement. D) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street.
A) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act B) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law
A) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime B) A witness describing the suspect's face C) The accused posting a confession online D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect C) Fingerprints matched in a database D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) CCTV footage of the incident B) Signed contract presented in court C) Knife left by the suspect D) Eyewitness pointing at the accused
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Testimonial evidence C) Real or physical evidence D) Demonstrative evidence
A) Accepted by the witness B) Based on personal beliefs C) Obtained from a private source D) Material and competent
A) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness C) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect D) Evidence with proper search warrant
A) Res Gestae Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Judicial Notice B) Relevance C) Best Evidence D) Materiality
A) Testimonial evidence B) Documentary evidence C) Judicially noticed facts D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Hearsay rule B) Parol evidence C) Chain of custody D) Opinion rule
A) Anytime during arraignment B) Immediately after the pre-trial C) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Write a letter to the judge later B) File a motion after the case is finished C) Ignore it and argue in closing statements D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) That it has been posted online B) The popularity of the person who wrote it C) That it came from a government agency only D) Its authenticity and relevance
A) Parol Evidence Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility B) Is based entirely on hearsay C) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt D) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Clear and convincing evidence C) Mere preponderance of evidence D) Substantial evidence
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC) B) Court of Appeals C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) D) Sandiganbayan
A) Sandiganbayan B) Municipal Trial Court C) Court of Appeals D) Regional Trial Court
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Regional Trial Court C) Court of Appeals D) Sandiganbayan
A) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. B) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. C) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. D) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases.
A) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. B) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. C) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. D) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders.
A) The right to set the schedule of hearings. B) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. D) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence.
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to preliminary investigation C) Right to due process of law D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. D) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. B) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. C) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. D) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses.
A) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. B) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. C) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. D) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip.
A) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. B) When the complainant demands it. C) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. D) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Trial proper C) Inquest proceeding D) Arraignment
A) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. B) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. C) A case where one party is a corporation. D) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity.
A) Certification to File Action B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certificate of Non-Participation D) Certificate of Appearance
A) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. C) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. D) Dismiss the case automatically.
A) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. B) To record the plea of the accused. C) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. D) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence.
A) Motion for new trial B) Demurrer to evidence C) Motion to quash D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. D) Continue the questioning until the child answers. |