Meiosis - Quiz
  • 1. What is the term for the normal separation of chromosomes in meiosis I or sister chromatids in meiosis II?
A) Disjunction
B) Nondisjunction
C) Segregation
D) Aneuploidy
  • 2. Nondisjunction can occur during which of the following?
A) Meiosis I, meiosis II, or mitosis
B) Only mitosis
C) Only meiosis I
D) Only meiosis II
  • 3. Which syndrome is associated with a trisomy of chromosome 21?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Patau syndrome
D) Edwards syndrome
  • 4. What is the chromosomal composition of individuals with Turner syndrome?
A) XXX
B) X0
C) XYY
D) XXY
  • 5. Why does the probability of nondisjunction in human oocytes increase with maternal age?
A) Increased metabolic rate
B) Presumed loss of cohesin over time
C) Decrease in cytoplasm volume
D) Reduced temperature
  • 6. What acts to maintain meiotic arrest in mammalian oocytes?
A) Luteinizing hormone
B) Natriuretic peptide type C (NPPC)
C) Cdc25B
D) Cyclin B
  • 7. What does cGMP inhibit to help maintain meiotic arrest?
A) Cyclin B
B) Protein kinase A (PKA)
C) Phosphodiesterase 3A (PDE3A)
D) Adenylyl cyclase
  • 8. What effect does a spike in luteinizing hormone (LH) have on oocytes?
A) Activates PDE3A
B) Spurs oocyte maturation
C) Increases cAMP levels
D) Induces meiotic arrest
  • 9. Which protein catalyzes double-stranded breaks during meiotic recombination?
A) Exo1
B) Spo11
C) Sae2
D) Mre11
  • 10. What is the primary role of the Mei2 protein in S. pombe?
A) Inhibits APC/C
B) Activates Cdc25
C) Represses IME1
D) Major meiotic regulator
  • 11. Which molecule is responsible for degrading cyclin B during anaphase I?
A) PKA
B) Anaphase-promoting complex (APC)
C) Cdc25B
D) WEE2
  • 12. Which syndrome is caused by an extra Y chromosome in males?
A) Down syndrome
B) Edwards syndrome
C) Jacobs syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
  • 13. Which pathway results in a noncrossover product during recombination?
A) Ubiquitin-dependent pathway
B) Double Holliday junction (dHJ) pathway
C) Synthesis-dependent strand annealing (SDSA)
D) CSF pathway
  • 14. What is the clinical feature of Edwards syndrome?
A) Trisomy of chromosome 13
B) Monosomy of X chromosome
C) Trisomy of chromosome 21
D) Trisomy of chromosome 18
  • 15. What effect do LH-induced epidermal growth factor-like factors have on gap junctions?
A) Reduce cGMP transport
B) Stabilize gap junctions
C) Promote NPPC production
D) Increase cGMP transport
  • 16. Which organisms are known to undergo one-divisional meiosis?
A) Parabasalids and oxymonads
B) Humans and primates
C) Yeast and mice
D) Wood-feeding cockroaches
  • 17. In which specific host organism are flagellates that undergo one-divisional meiosis found?
A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B) Mus musculus
C) Cryptocercus
D) Homo sapiens
  • 18. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?
A) 1
B) 10
C) 46
D) 23
  • 19. How much higher is the recombination rate in human females compared to males?
A) 3-fold
B) 2-fold
C) 1.2-fold
D) 1.6-fold
  • 20. Where is female recombination generally higher in humans?
A) At the nucleolus
B) At the mid-point of the chromosome
C) At the centromeres
D) At the telomeres
  • 21. Where is male recombination generally higher in humans?
A) At the telomeres
B) At the centromeres
C) At the heterochromatin
D) At the kinetochores
  • 22. What does 1 cMorgan represent in terms of recombination frequency?
A) 100%
B) 1%
C) 0.1%
D) 10%
  • 23. How many base pairs correspond to 1 cMorgan?
A) 1,000 bp
B) 1 million bp
C) 100,000 bp
D) 10 million bp
  • 24. What is the estimated number of double-strand breaks formed per meiotic cell in humans?
A) At least 200
B) Exactly 23
C) Fewer than 50
D) Exactly 100
  • 25. Approximately how many times does maternal DNA recombine on average in humans?
A) 27 times
B) 42 times
C) 200 times
D) 10 times
  • 26. Approximately how many times does paternal DNA recombine on average in humans?
A) 42 times
B) 50 times
C) 27 times
D) 15 times
  • 27. What percentage of double-strand breaks go on to produce crossovers?
A) 50–100%
B) 5–30%
C) 90–100%
D) 1–2%
  • 28. How many cross-overs are estimated to occur per human chromosome?
A) 100–200
B) 5–10
C) 20–30
D) 1–2
  • 29. What happens to kinetochore microtubules during Anaphase I?
A) They disappear
B) They shorten
C) They lengthen
D) They stabilize
  • 30. What happens to the cohesin on the chromosome arms during Anaphase I?
A) It is protected
B) It is degraded
C) It is synthesized
D) It is doubled
  • 31. Do chromosomes replicate during interkinesis?
A) Yes, twice
B) Yes, once
C) Only in plant cells
D) No
  • 32. What are the daughter cells at the end of Meiosis I called?
A) Tetraploid
B) Triploid
C) Diploid
D) Haploid
  • 33. How many cells are produced by the end of Meiosis II?
A) Four
B) Six
C) Two
D) Eight
  • 34. How is the metaphase II plate oriented compared to meiosis I?
A) Rotated by 180 degrees
B) Identical
C) Rotated by 90 degrees
D) Parallel
  • 35. What happens to sister chromatids in Anaphase II?
A) They fuse
B) They segregate
C) They replicate
D) They condense
  • 36. What are sister chromatids called after they separate in Anaphase II?
A) Homologous pairs
B) Centrosomes
C) Tetrads
D) Sister chromosomes
  • 37. What marks the end of telophase II?
A) Two daughter cells
B) One diploid cell
C) Four daughter cells
D) DNA replication
  • 38. What persists between daughter cells until the end of meiosis II?
A) Nuclear envelopes
B) Cytoplasmic bridges
C) Centrosomes
D) Spindle fibers
  • 39. What happens to non-kinetochore microtubules in Anaphase I?
A) They lengthen
B) They shorten
C) They dissolve
D) They replicate
  • 40. What happens to the nuclear envelope in Prophase II?
A) It reforms
B) It doubles
C) It grows
D) It disappears
  • 41. What does the term 'diakinesis' mean in Greek?
A) Two poles
B) Crossing over
C) Moving through
D) Sister separation
  • 42. At which stage are the four parts of tetrads first visible?
A) Diakinesis
B) Metaphase I
C) Anaphase I
D) Prometaphase
  • 43. What becomes clearly visible due to the overlapping of crossing over sites during diakinesis?
A) Centrosomes
B) Cohesin complexes
C) Nuclear membrane
D) Chiasmata
  • 44. Which of the following occurs during diakinesis?
A) Independent assortment finishes
B) Bipolar attachments dissolve
C) Cohesin is cleaved
D) Nucleoli disappear
  • 45. What structure is absent in human and mouse oocytes for producing the meiotic spindle?
A) Chromosomes
B) Centrosomes
C) Kinetochores
D) Microtubules
  • 46. How many MTOCs initially form a sphere in mouse oocytes?
A) Approximately 80
B) Exactly 2
C) Over 200
D) About 40
  • 47. What is the final shape of the spindle in mouse oocytes after MTOCs merge?
A) Linear
B) Spherical
C) Barrel shaped
D) Circular
  • 48. What structure forms around chromosomes in human oocytes during spindle assembly?
A) An aster
B) A nuclear envelope
C) A centrosome
D) A kinetochore plate
  • 49. What is the attachment of kinetochore microtubules from both poles to homologous chromosomes called?
A) Equatorial attachment
B) Chiasmata attachment
C) Unipolar attachment
D) Bipolar attachment
  • 50. What must be established in meiosis to progress to anaphase?
A) Vesicle fusion
B) Tension
C) Centrosome alignment
D) Nucleolar reformation
  • 51. Who discovered meiosis in sea urchin eggs in 1876?
A) Edouard Van Beneden
B) Oscar Hertwig
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) August Weismann
  • 52. In what year did Edouard Van Beneden describe meiosis at the chromosome level?
A) 1890
B) 1911
C) 1876
D) 1883
  • 53. Who noted that two cell divisions are necessary to turn one diploid cell into four haploid cells?
A) Oscar Hertwig
B) August Weismann
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) J.B. Farmer
  • 54. What organism was used by Thomas Hunt Morgan to detect crossovers in 1911?
A) Ascaris roundworm
B) Drosophila melanogaster
C) Sea urchin
D) Bacteria
  • 55. From which language is the term 'meiosis' derived?
A) French
B) Greek
C) German
D) Latin
  • 56. What is the meaning of the Greek word 'meiosis'?
A) Lessening
B) Division
C) Doubling
D) Replication
  • 57. Who changed the spelling of 'maiosis' to 'meiosis' to follow Greek transliteration conventions?
A) Flemming
B) Koernicke
C) August Weismann
D) Thomas Hunt Morgan
  • 58. During which phase of interphase does DNA replication occur?
A) G1 phase
B) S phase
C) Prophase I
D) G2 phase
  • 59. What structure holds two identical sister chromatids together?
A) Nucleus
B) Chromosome
C) Ribosome
D) Centromere
  • 60. Which phase of the mitotic cell cycle is notably absent in meiosis?
A) Prophase
B) G1 phase
C) S phase
D) G2 phase
  • 61. What is the resting phase between meiosis I and meiosis II called?
A) Interkinesis
B) Prophase I
C) Telophase I
D) G2 phase
  • 62. What kind of cell does meiosis begin with?
A) Gamete
B) Haploid
C) Zygote
D) Diploid
  • 63. What are the two copies of each chromosome in a diploid cell called?
A) Sister chromatids
B) Spindles
C) Homologs
D) Polar bodies
  • 64. What is the term for the physical connections between homologs?
A) Spindle apparatus
B) Sister chromatids
C) Binary fission
D) Crossovers
  • 65. How many rounds of DNA replication occur between the first and second meiotic division?
A) None
B) Two
C) One
D) Four
  • 66. What are the haploid cells formed during meiosis in some plants and fungi called?
A) Gametes
B) Spores
C) Ovum
D) Polar bodies
  • 67. Which organism is mentioned as reproducing via parthenogenesis?
A) Bacteria
B) Bdelloid rotifers
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
  • 68. How do bacteria generally reproduce?
A) Meiosis
B) Spore formation
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Binary fission
  • 69. What is the "sexual" process found in bacteria and archaea?
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Binary fission
D) Horizontal gene transfer
  • 70. What is the primary function of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms?
A) Producing gametes
B) Increasing the number of diploid cells
C) Replacing damaged tissue
D) Creating identical somatic cells
  • 71. What is the term for a cell formed by the fusion of a male and female gamete?
A) Sperm cell
B) Polar body
C) Ova
D) Zygote
  • 72. What is a leading known cause of miscarriage related to meiosis?
A) Aneuploidy
B) S-phase duplication
C) Excessive recombination
D) Sister chromatid cohesion
  • 73. What process occurs during prophase I to exchange genetic information?
A) Chromosome deletion
B) Sister chromatid synthesis
C) Mitotic division
D) Homologous recombination
  • 74. What is the term for paired and replicated chromosomes consisting of four chromatids?
A) Chromatin
B) Tetrads
C) Haploids
D) Diploids
  • 75. What is another name for a bivalent?
A) Tetrad
B) Sister chromatid
C) Homologous pair
D) Haploid cell
  • 76. What does the term 'leptotene' mean in Greek?
A) Paired threads
B) Thick threads
C) Double threads
D) Thin threads
  • 77. What is the approximate distance between homologues during leptotene in mice?
A) ~100 nm
B) ~400 nm
C) ~200 nm
D) ~800 nm
  • 78. What is another name for the zygotene stage?
A) Leptonema
B) Diplonema
C) Zygonema
D) Pachynema
  • 79. What process involves the close pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene?
A) Recombination
B) Crossing over
C) Gene conversion
D) Synapsis
  • 80. What is the approximate distance between paired homologous chromosomes in zygotene?
A) ~50 nm
B) ~1000 nm
C) ~100 nm
D) ~400 nm
  • 81. What does the term 'pachytene' mean in Greek?
A) Thick threads
B) Separated threads
C) Thin threads
D) Paired threads
  • 82. At which stage are all autosomal chromosomes synapsed?
A) Zygotene
B) Leptotene
C) Pachytene
D) Diplotene
  • 83. What is the suspended state of human fetal oocytes in prophase I called?
A) Leptonema
B) Pachynema
C) Zygonema
D) Dictyotene
  • 84. Which biological domain is meiosis a fundamental characteristic of?
A) Eukaryotic organisms
B) Bacterial organisms
C) Viral organisms
D) Prokaryotic organisms
  • 85. How were amoeba historically viewed by scientists?
A) As exclusively sexual
B) As asexual
C) As multicellular
D) As viral pathogens
  • 86. According to Dacks and Rogers, what was present in the common ancestor of eukaryotes?
A) No genetic exchange
B) Facultative sex
C) Obligate asexual reproduction
D) Binary fission only
  • 87. Which organism is mentioned as having achiasmate meiosis?
A) Volvox carteri
B) Homo sapiens
C) Schizosaccharomyces pombe
D) Bombyx mori
  • 88. What is the proposed biological purpose for the informational redundancy in prophase I arrested oocytes?
A) Increasing chromosome number
B) Repairing DNA damage
C) Accelerating cell division
D) Preventing mutation
  • 89. What type of DNA damage are prophase I arrested oocytes particularly capable of repairing?
A) Point mutations
B) Double-strand breaks
C) Chromosomal deletions
D) Base pair substitutions
  • 90. What induces meiotic sex in Volvox carteri?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Heat shock
C) Synaptonemal complexes
D) Antioxidants
  • 91. What chemical inhibits the induction of meiotic sex in Volvox carteri?
A) Antioxidants
B) Heat shock
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Recombinational enzymes
  • 92. What is the term for the lack of crossing over during meiosis?
A) Redundant
B) Dictyate
C) Achiasmate
D) Synaptonemal
  • 93. In which life cycle is the organism diploid?
A) Sporic
B) Haplontic
C) Diplontic
D) Haplodiplontic
  • 94. In the haplontic life cycle, when does meiosis occur?
A) During the mitotic phase
B) During gamete formation
C) Pre-gametic
D) Post-zygotic
  • 95. In diplontic organisms, what are the haploid gametes produced by males called?
A) Spores
B) Ova
C) Spermatozoa
D) Zygotes
  • 96. In females, what cells undergo meiosis?
A) Oocytes
B) Spermatogonia
C) Germinal vesicles
D) Follicle cells
  • 97. What is the name for the oocyte nucleus while it is dormant?
A) Polar body
B) Germinal vesicle
C) Spindle
D) Somatic shell
  • 98. What hormone stimulates follicles to mature during the menstrual cycle?
A) DAZL
B) Retinoic acid
C) Nanos
D) FSH
  • 99. What is the long period of meiotic arrest in females called?
A) Dictyate stage
B) Spermatogenesis
C) Atresia
D) Folliculogenesis
  • 100. In males, where does meiosis occur?
A) Primitive kidney
B) Seminiferous tubules
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Germinal vesicle
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