CDI #8 TECWRI 2 - Quiz
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9484
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9995
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 4200
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10173
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Illegal Access
B) Data Interference
C) Cyber-libel
D) Cyber-sabotage
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Unauthorized fishing activities
B) Posting fake news online
C) Stealing personal data without consent
D) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Computer system or online platform
B) Radio broadcast
C) Text messages
D) Personal letters
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Personal information
B) Statistical raw data with identity
C) Anonymous data with no identifiers
D) Privileged information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) NBI
B) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
C) PNP-ACG
D) DICT
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9995
C) RA 9262
D) RA 9208
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Downloading pirated movies
B) Changing online photos
C) Using another’s personal data without authority
D) Posting insults online
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Cyber-libel
B) System interference
C) Illegal access
D) Data interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) Individuals
B) Private companies
C) All of the above
D) Government agencies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Using malware to crash systems
B) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
C) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
D) Tracking IP addresses
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Age
B) Health information
C) Citizenship
D) Nickname
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9165
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9775 and RA 10175
D) RA 9262
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) DNS corruption
B) Unauthorized surveillance
C) Destroying data
D) Using fake identity or email headers
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) System interference
B) Computer forgery
C) Cyber fraud
D) Data interference
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) All of the above
B) Device misuse
C) Content-related offense
D) Computer-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Digital files
B) Government databases
C) Rights of data subjects
D) Corporate records
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Consent for data processing
B) Data privacy officer
C) Data retention policy
D) Unlimited free access to data
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) CEO
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) All employees
D) IT staff
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Radio
B) Newspapers
C) Books
D) Digital devices
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Bulletin boards
B) Blogs
C) Private computer files
D) Public social media posts
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Civil offense
B) All of the above
C) Administrative offense
D) Criminal offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Illegal access
B) Data interference
C) Child pornography
D) Cyber fraud
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Administrative charge
B) No liability
C) Same penalty as principal
D) Penalty reduction
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Air Act
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Water pollution
B) Air pollution control
C) Wildlife protection
D) Solid waste management
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Air quality
B) Toxic chemicals
C) Water quality
D) Mining operations
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Marine wildlife
B) Hazardous waste
C) Clean water regulation
D) Clean air regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using nets
B) Handline fishing
C) Using bamboo traps
D) Using dynamite in fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Handline fishing
B) Culturing fish in ponds
C) Harvesting seaweeds
D) Using fine-mesh nets
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Households
B) All of the above
C) Industrial plants
D) Commercial establishments
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) Fisheries Code
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003 and RA 8749
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) Fisheries code
D) RA 9275
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 9275
B) All of the above
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine and imprisonment
B) Fine only
C) Administrative penalty only
D) Community service
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749 and RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling aquarium fish
B) Selling endangered wildlife
C) Selling domestic dogs
D) Selling common livestock
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) Fisheries Code
D) No law
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Clean Air Act
D) Wildlife Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) NBI guidelines
B) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
C) Data Privacy Act
D) Rules of Court
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Interviewing witnesses
B) Checking CCTV
C) Accessing private emails
D) Viewing public Facebook posts
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Identification of the incident
B) Seizing devices
C) Threat hunting
D) Arresting suspects
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Handwritten notes
B) Random methods
C) Verbal descriptions
D) Forensically sound procedures
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Speed up copying
B) Prevent data alteration
C) Encrypt drives
D) Delete malicious files
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Police assignments
B) Criminal profiles
C) Evidence handling history
D) Interrogation details
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Cyber Warrant
B) Consent of suspect
C) Verbal permission
D) Judge’s certification only
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Packing devices
B) Photographing the scene
C) Arresting suspects
D) Preventing data alteration
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) USB drives
B) RAM
C) Memory cards
D) Hard drives
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Running processes
B) Hard drive files
C) Network connections
D) RAM data
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data deletion
B) Network security
C) Encryption
D) Data authenticity
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Password-protected file
B) A complete bit-for-bit copy
C) Compressed folder
D) Partial copy
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Court warrant
B) Subpoena only
C) Imminent danger
D) Executive order
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Authenticated
B) Acquired legally
C) Tampered or altered
D) Properly documented
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Analysis
B) Examination
C) Preservation
D) Collection
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Identify motives
B) Stop further damage
C) Erase malware
D) Arrest hackers
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Turned off
B) Corrupt
C) Destroyed
D) In use / powered on
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Containment
B) Eradication
C) Identification
D) Punishment
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-CL
B) SW-DI
C) SW-SI
D) SW-ARA
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Content data
B) None
C) Physical data
D) Non-content data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Anywhere
B) Home office
C) Laboratory
D) Police car
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Guessing
B) Forensic tools
C) Social media
D) Brute-force methods
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Altered copies
B) Reports
C) None
D) Deleted data
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) All of these
B) Cellphones
C) Hard drives
D) Emails
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Containment
B) Eradication
C) Recovery
D) Lessons learned
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Court
B) Special Penal Laws
C) Civil Code
D) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) NGOs and citizens
B) Only direct victims
C) Only police
D) Only government agencies
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Regular trial courts
B) Labor courts
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Water samples
B) Wildlife evidence
C) All environmental evidence
D) Seized explosives
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Large-scale environmental rights
B) Individuals only
C) Property disputes
D) Private contracts
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Water Act
C) RA 9003
D) Clean Air Act
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DENR
B) DOH
C) DICT
D) DA
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Transport documents
B) Confiscated cages
C) All of the above
D) Specimens
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9275
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Municipality type
B) Weather condition
C) Species classification
D) Age of violator
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) No documentation needed
B) Scientific protocols
C) Guesswork
D) Verbal timelines
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) DNA tests
B) None
C) Lie detector tests
D) Laboratory tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) PNP EOD
B) DA
C) DENR
D) Bureau of Fisheries
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Arrest
B) Collection only
C) Laboratory test
D) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
Created with That Quiz — the site for test creation and grading in math and other subjects.