CLJ6-CPCTES - Quiz
  • 1. A case involving qualified theft with an amount of ₱1,300,000 is filed. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) RTC
B) MTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 2. A city prosecutor elevates an appeal on a dismissal order of the RTC in a criminal case. Which court reviews it?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) MTC
  • 3. An accused challenges the constitutionality of a search warrant issued by the RTC. Which court has authority to resolve the petition?
A) Supreme Court
B) RTC
C) MTC
D) Court of Appeals
  • 4. A barangay official is charged with violation of the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act. Which court tries the case?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Supreme Court
C) MTC
D) RTC
  • 5. A civil action for damages amounting to ₱250,000 arising from a vehicular accident in a province is filed. Where should it be filed?
A) Court of Appeals
B) RTC
C) Barangay Justice System
D) MTC
  • 6. An accused petitions for bail after being charged with a capital offense. Which court determines the bail application?
A) Supreme Court
B) MTC
C) RTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 7. A petition for writ of amparo is filed against military personnel. Where is the proper venue?
A) RTC
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Court of Appeals
D) MTC
  • 8. A foreign corporation sues a local company for contractual disputes. Which court hears the case initially?
A) RTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) MTC
  • 9. A party seeks annulment of marriage. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) MTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) RTC (Family Court)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 10. A motion for reconsideration of a Sandiganbayan decision is denied. Where is the next legal remedy filed?
A) MTC
B) RTC
C) Supreme Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 11. Criminal procedure primarily governs which aspect of the justice process?
A) Administrative penalties
B) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law
C) Civil litigation procedures
D) Arbitration procedures
  • 12. The purpose of a preliminary investigation is mainly to:
A) Impose penalties
B) Conduct trial
C) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case
D) Determine guilt
  • 13. The concept of “probable cause” in criminal procedure refers to?
A) Mere suspicion
B) A prosecutor’s opinion
C) Absolute proof of guilt
D) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed
  • 14. Arraignment is the stage where the court?
A) Decides on evidence admissibility
B) Conducts mandatory mediation
C) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
D) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea
  • 15. The purpose of a warrant of arrest is to:
A) Place the accused under lawful custody
B) Initiate a complaint
C) File an information
D) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C
  • 16. Bail primarily serves to:
A) Reduce the penalty upon conviction
B) Guarantee an acquittal
C) Replace detention with probation
D) Ensure the accused appears in court
  • 17. The right to counsel during custodial investigation ensures that the accused:
A) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers
B) Can escape detention
C) Can negotiate penalties
D) May be tried immediately
  • 18. The information filed by the prosecutor must contain:
A) Accused’s personal opinion
B) Proposed punishment
C) Witness names only
D) The acts complained of and the law violated
  • 19. The exclusionary rule in criminal procedure means that:
A) Confessions are always valid
B) Witnesses may be excluded
C) All evidence is admissible
D) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible
  • 20. A motion to quash challenges the:
A) Trial procedure
B) Validity of the complaint or information
C) Judgment
D) Credibility of witnesses
  • 21. The concept of “double jeopardy” protects an accused from:
A) Multiple fines
B) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal
C) Bail denial
D) Civil suits
  • 22. During trial, the prosecution presents evidence first because:
A) Defense is always last
B) Witnesses appear first
C) The State carries the burden of proof
D) Judge instructs them
  • 23. The judgment in a criminal case must be based on:
A) Public interest
B) Defense preference
C) Prosecutor’s opinion
D) Evidence presented and the applicable law
  • 24. The execution of judgment in criminal procedure refers to:
A) Reviewing evidence
B) Drafting the decision
C) Filing appeals
D) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court
  • 25. Police officers arrested a suspect after he “acted suspiciously” but committed no overt act. Analyze the arrest.
A) Valid because suspicion is enough
B) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours
C) Valid if officer believes crime might occur
D) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present
  • 26. Officers arrest a suspect after a reliable informant claims the suspect “might transport drugs tomorrow.” Assess the legality.
A) Valid if suspect previously had a record
B) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest
C) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
D) Valid as long as informant is reliable
  • 27. A search warrant states “illegal drugs and related contraband.” Evaluate the warrant.
A) Valid if approved by a judge
B) Valid only if the search happens immediately
C) Invalid due to lack of particularity
D) Valid because purpose is clear
  • 28. Police conduct a search of a house using a warrant issued for a different address. Evaluate the action.
A) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside
B) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location
C) Valid if within the same barangay
D) Valid only if consent is implied
  • 29. During a checkpoint, officers search all closed bags inside a vehicle without probable cause. Assess the search.
A) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized
B) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed
C) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches
D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
  • 30. Officers enter a residence without a warrant because a suspect ran inside after committing theft. Analyze the entry.
A) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime
B) Valid only if homeowner consents
C) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes
D) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry
  • 31. Police arrest a suspect hours after a crime based only on a vague description from a bystander. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid because it is still hot pursuit
B) Valid if the offense is grave
C) Valid if suspect tries to flee
D) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking
  • 32. Officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant, claiming they “felt something was wrong.” Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid if officers are experienced
B) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity
C) Valid if the suspect was still awake
D) Valid because instinct may justify action
  • 33. A valid warrant is served at 1:00 a.m. despite no justification for nighttime service. Evaluate the service.
A) Valid since the warrant is lawful
B) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization
C) Valid if officers announce their identity
D) Valid if probable cause existed
  • 34. Police arrest a person for loitering in a public place at night, claiming it is a crime. Assess the arrest.
A) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official
B) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest
C) Valid only if the area has a curfew
D) Valid because officers maintain public order
  • 35. Officers seize laptops during a search for firearms. Evaluate the seizure.
A) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search
B) Valid only if owner does not object
C) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered
D) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating
  • 36. During a warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto, police only saw the suspect talking to a person involved in a crime. Analyze the procedure.
A) Valid because one person was a suspect
B) Valid if both individuals knew each other
C) Valid because association is enough
D) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed
  • 37. Police search a locked drawer during a consented search of a living room. The homeowner did not specify limits. Evaluate the search.
A) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments
B) Valid if search is within the same house
C) Valid if evidence is eventually found
D) Valid because consent is presumed broad
  • 38. Officers conduct a full-body search of a driver at a checkpoint without any suspicious behavior. Evaluate the action.
A) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause
B) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel
C) Valid only if the driver is alone
D) Valid if checkpoint is legal
  • 39. A complainant submits a sworn statement and evidence to the prosecutor’s office for a criminal offense. What procedural stage is being initiated?
A) Preliminary investigation filing
B) Motion for reconsideration
C) Inquest review
D) Barangay mediation
  • 40. A barangay captain attempts conciliation between neighbors involved in a minor physical injury case. Which mechanism is being used?
A) Police arbitration
B) Barangay Justice System
C) Court-annexed mediation
D) Judicial dispute resolution
  • 41. A suspect arrested without a warrant is brought before the prosecutor within 12 hours. What proceeding must commence?
A) Pre-trial conference
B) Judicial affidavit rule
C) Inquest proceeding
D) Summary trial
  • 42. A party files a criminal complaint directly with the MTC after failing to settle at the barangay level. Which requirement has been met?
A) Certification to File Action
B) Direct filing privilege
C) Prosecutorial endorsement
D) Automatic judicial referral
  • 43. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint for lack of probable cause without requiring counter-affidavits. Analyze the action.
A) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral
B) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient
C) Proper only if the defense requests it
D) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required
  • 44. An inquest officer orders the release of a suspect and converts the inquest into a regular preliminary investigation. Evaluate this decision.
A) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects
B) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody
C) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid
D) Correct only for capital offenses
  • 45. A complaint involving slander is filed directly with the prosecutor without barangay conciliation. Assess the filing.
A) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation
B) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel
C) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation
D) Valid because slander is a private crime
  • 46. During preliminary investigation, the respondent refuses to submit counter-affidavits but asks for outright dismissal. Evaluate this action.
A) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
B) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay
C) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence
D) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments
  • 47. A barangay issues a Certification to File Action even though parties refuse to appear at mediation. Analyze the issuance.
A) Valid only after three scheduled hearings
B) Invalid unless arbitrators are present
C) Invalid because mediation must be completed
D) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
  • 48. A prosecutor conducts preliminary investigation solely based on affidavits without clarificatory hearings. Evaluate the procedure.
A) Valid only if the accused waives rights
B) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory
C) Invalid unless witness examination happens
D) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary
  • 49. Police file a criminal complaint directly in court for a crime requiring preliminary investigation. Assess the filing.
A) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor
B) Valid if the accused is detained
C) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable
D) Valid if police have personal knowledge
  • 50. A suspect is arrested without warrant for an offense punishable only by a fine. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules
B) Valid if the barangay issues certification
C) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt
D) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official
  • 51. Bail is filed for an accused in a non-capital offense. Which is the primary purpose?
A) To excuse the crime
B) To ensure the accused appears in court
C) To reduce the penalty
D) To release the accused permanently
  • 52. During arraignment, the accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Judge dismisses the case
B) Bail is automatically granted
C) Trial begins immediately
D) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled
  • 53. Pre-trial in criminal cases primarily aims to:
A) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
B) Schedule judgment
C) Assign a prosecutor
D) Decide on civil liabilities
  • 54. During trial, the prosecution must present its evidence first because:
A) Judge requires opening statements
B) Burden of proof lies with the State
C) Defense cannot start immediately
D) Witnesses must speak first
  • 55. A judge refuses to hear a petition for bail in a non-capital offense and requires the accused to remain detained. Analyze the judge’s action.
A) Proper if the accused lacks counsel
B) Proper only if complainant objects
C) Improper because bail is a matter of right
D) Proper because bail is discretionary
  • 56. The court arraigned an accused without counsel and without valid waiver. Evaluate the arraignment.
A) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived
B) Valid if court is overloaded
C) Valid since arraignment is formal
D) Valid if the accused understood the charge
  • 57. Pre-trial is scheduled, but the prosecution fails to appear without justification. What should occur?
A) Defense must postpone
B) Court requires accused to present evidence
C) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires
D) Case must be dismissed
  • 58. A judge accepts a guilty plea to a serious offense without conducting a searching inquiry. Assess the plea.
A) Valid if evidence is strong
B) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding
C) Valid if prosecutor agrees
D) Valid if freely made
  • 59. The defense requests a bail hearing, but prosecution claims it is unnecessary because they “believe evidence of guilt is strong.” Evaluate.
A) Acceptable if affidavits are complete
B) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing
C) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude
D) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt
  • 60. During trial, the judge restricts cross-examination to “two questions per witness.” Assess.
A) Valid in minor offenses
B) Valid if both parties agree
C) Valid for efficiency
D) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination
  • 61. The accused was arraigned before the resolution of a pending motion to quash. Evaluate.
A) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first
B) Proper; arraignment must always proceed
C) Proper if judge wants to expedite
D) Proper only if accused insists
  • 62. Court approves plea bargaining even though prosecution objects. Assess.
A) Improper; prosecution consent is essential
B) Proper only if offense is light
C) Proper; court has full authority
D) Proper if defense offers restitution
  • 63. Prosecution introduces a new witness after resting, without giving defense time to prepare. Evaluate.
A) Valid if witness is material
B) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut
C) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime
D) Valid if trial is almost finished
  • 64. During trial, judge repeatedly prevents defense from presenting witnesses, claiming they are “unnecessary.” Evaluate.
A) Valid to shorten trial
B) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong
C) Valid only if counsel agrees
D) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence
  • 65. During direct examination, a prosecutor asks a child witness simple, age-appropriate questions. This illustrates:
A) Improper leading
B) Proper direct examination considering age
C) Hearsay objection
D) Cross-examination
  • 66. During direct examination, a witness hesitates to answer due to trauma. What is correct?
A) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance
B) Dismiss the witness
C) Force the witness
D) Ignore and proceed
  • 67. Defense attorney asks leading questions during direct examination. This is:
A) Required to expedite trial
B) Always prohibited
C) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
D) Always permitted
  • 68. Prosecution presents evidence to refresh a witness’ memory. This occurs?
A) During cross-examination
B) Only for expert witnesses
C) Only during rebuttal
D) During direct examination
  • 69. Witness is asked to describe events chronologically during direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Leading question
B) Improper narrative
C) Proper direct examination strategy
D) Hearsay
  • 70. Child witness testifies with a social worker assisting in simple language. This demonstrates?
A) Accommodation for child witnesses
B) Leading questioning
C) Improper testimony
D) Violation of impartiality
  • 71. During cross-examination, the attorney asks questions to test the witness’ perception and memory. This is?
A) Cross-examination strategy
B) Improper leading
C) Hearsay
D) Direct examination
  • 72. Defense attorney impeaches a witness using prior inconsistent statements. This procedure is:
A) Improper if done in court
B) Direct examination
C) Rebuttal evidence
D) Cross-examination
  • 73. During direct examination, witness refers to a written report to explain events. This is:
A) Leading question
B) Cross-examination
C) Reading testimony verbatim (improper)
D) Refreshing memory (proper)
  • 74. Judge allows child witness to testify with simple props. This is an example of?
A) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding
B) Improper demonstration
C) Cross-examination tactic
D) Leading question
  • 75. Prosecutor asks a child witness to recount events in their own words, without suggesting answers. This demonstrates?
A) Hearsay
B) Cross-examination
C) Leading question
D) Proper direct examination
  • 76. During cross-examination, attorney asks witness to clarify statements made in direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Improper impeachment
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Direct examination
D) Cross-examination technique
  • 77. Child witness becomes scared and refuses to answer. Court allows testimony via closed-circuit TV. This is?
A) Improper
B) Cross-examination violation
C) Leading question
D) Proper accommodation for child witness protection
  • 78. During direct examination, witness is asked only open-ended questions to narrate the incident. This exemplifies:
A) Leading questions
B) Proper direct examination
C) Hearsay
D) Cross-examination
  • 79. Attorney asks witness about contradictory statements made outside court to challenge credibility. This occurs during?
A) Pre-trial conference
B) Direct examination
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Cross-examination
  • 80. Child witness testifies in the presence of a familiar adult to reduce stress while questions are simplified. This procedure is
A) Leading question
B) Proper witness protection and accommodation
C) Improper coaching
D) Cross-examination violation
  • 81. Bail primarily exists to?
A) Reduce penalty
B) Guarantee acquittal
C) Ensure accused appears during trial
D) Replace detention with probation
  • 82. During arraignment, accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Bail granted automatically
B) Case dismissed
C) Trial begins immediately
D) Pre-trial is scheduled
  • 83. Pre-trial aims to?
A) Schedule judgment
B) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
C) Assign a prosecutor
D) Decide civil liabilities
  • 84. Cross-examination of witnesses primarily tests?
A) Procedural technicalities
B) Prosecutor’s theory
C) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility
D) Judge’s discretion
  • 85. Child witnesses may testify using props or closed-circuit television to?
A) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma
B) Make trial faster
C) Influence testimony
D) Replace direct questioning
  • 86. Leading questions are generally allowed during cross-examination to
A) Violate rights
B) Accelerate trial
C) Suggest answers to witnesses
D) Test credibility and impeach statements
  • 87. Direct examination should be conducted with?
A) Hearsay questions
B) Open-ended questions
C) Leading questions only
D) Closed-ended questions only
  • 88. In impeachment, prior inconsistent statements are used to?
A) Support witness credibility
B) Confirm hearsay
C) Challenge witness credibility
D) End trial
  • 89. Witness testimony may be refreshed by?
A) Leading questions
B) Oral suggestion
C) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts
D) Replacing witness
  • 90. Proper cross-examination allows?
A) Unlimited questioning without relevance
B) Testing witness statements and credibility
C) Skipping procedural rules
D) Introducing new evidence without notice
  • 91. Child witness testifies with assistance to?
A) Violate impartiality
B) Protect emotional well-being
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Influence verdict
  • 92. Judge ensures searching inquiry during plea to verify
A) Voluntariness and understanding
B) Sentence reduction
C) Guilt
D) Plea bargaining
  • 93. Pre-trial ensures
A) Verdict announcement
B) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
C) Witness selection only
D) Trial starts immediately
  • 94. Arraignment involves
A) Evidence evaluation
B) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea
C) Bail denial
D) Trial on the merits
  • 95. Arrest without a warrant is allowed when?
A) Ordinance requires detention
B) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit
C) Officer has mere suspicion
D) Accused looks guilty
  • 96. Search and seizure without a warrant is valid if?
A) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist
B) Consent is given
C) Any officer orders it
D) Officer feels probable cause
  • 97. Inquest proceeding occurs when?
A) Case is dismissed
B) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours
C) Bail is granted
D) Pre-trial is conducted
  • 98. Preliminary investigation determines?
A) Sentence
B) Guilt
C) Probable cause
D) Bail amount
  • 99. Barangay Justice System aims to?
A) Collect fines
B) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts
C) Replace courts
D) Conduct arrest
  • 100. Witness presentation, including child witnesses, must be conducted using?
A) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Leading questions only
D) Coercion
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