CLJ set A - Quiz
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Philippine National Police (PNP)
B) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
C) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
D) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BFP
B) NBI
C) BJMP
D) PNP
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Conduct trial
B) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
D) Decide the proper penalty
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) Prosecutor’s Office
B) Bureau of Corrections facility
C) PNP detention cell
D) BJMP jail
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Due process
B) Double jeopardy
C) Eminent domain
D) Police power
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Political rights only
B) Miranda rights
C) Property rights
D) Voting rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Conviction
B) Probable cause
C) Written confession
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right to suffrage
B) Right to travel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus
B) Writ of Certiorari
C) Writ of Amparo
D) Writ of Execution
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Culpa
B) Quasi-offenses
C) Dolo
D) Mala prohibita
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Prospectivity
B) Retroactivity
C) Territoriality
D) Generality
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Impossible crimes
B) Intentional felonies
C) Consummated felonies
D) Culpable felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Treachery
B) Recidivism
C) Conspiracy
D) Proposal
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Witness
B) Accomplice
C) Accessory
D) Principal
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Principal
B) Co-conspirator
C) Accessory
D) Accomplice
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Presence at the crime scene
B) Concealing evidence after the crime
C) Mere knowledge of the crime
D) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Frustrated
C) Attempted
D) Consummated
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Frustrated
B) Impossible
C) Consummated
D) Attempted
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Destierro
B) Prision correccional
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Arresto menor
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Insanity
B) Voluntary surrender
C) Recidivism
D) Treachery
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Cruelty
B) Dwelling
C) Treachery
D) Habituality
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Revenge
B) Relationship
C) Lack of sufficient provocation
D) Intent to kill
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Escapes during trial
B) Repeats the same crime before conviction
C) Commits another crime after final conviction
D) Uses a deadly weapon
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Qualifying circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Recidivism
B) Death of the convict
C) Escape from prison
D) Concealment
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Damages only
B) Criminal liability
C) Civil liability only
D) Subsidiary liability only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Political rights
B) Civil liability only
C) Criminal liability
D) Administrative liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Evidence
B) Criminal liability and penalty
C) Property rights
D) Civil liability only
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Infanticide
D) Murder
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Infanticide
B) Parricide
C) Murder
D) Homicide
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Murder
B) Homicide
C) Parricide
D) Infanticide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Grave coercion
B) Grave threats
C) Slight physical injuries
D) Serious physical injuries
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) Firearm is possessed illegally
B) Firearm is displayed publicly
C) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
D) Firearm is used in robbery
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Murder
B) Duel
C) Physical injuries
D) Homicide
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Murder
B) Parricide
C) Death under exceptional circumstances
D) Homicide
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Theft
B) Robbery
C) Estafa
D) Malicious mischief
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Public officer participation
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Forgery
D) Abuse of confidence
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Theft
B) Malversation
C) Estafa
D) Robbery
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Estafa
B) Arson
C) Malicious mischief
D) Robbery
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Liberty
B) Honor
C) Public order
D) Chastity
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
B) Prosecutor conducting inquest
C) Any private person
D) Judge issuing warrant
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
B) Defaming another person
C) Concealing a crime
D) Taking property
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Taking property through deceit
B) Public scandal
C) Falsification
D) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Public order
B) Persons
C) Chastity
D) Fundamental law of the State
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Trespasser entering property
B) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
C) A tenant refusing to vacate
D) Private individual entering a house
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Taking property
B) Falsifying documents
C) Causing disturbance in public places
D) Defaming another person
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Escapes detention
B) Commits homicide
C) Falsifies testimony
D) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Physical assault
B) Spoken words only
C) Mere gestures
D) Writing or similar means
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Slander
B) Perjury
C) Libel
D) Estafa
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
B) Single man seducing a minor
C) Public officer abusing authority
D) Married woman having intercourse with another man
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
B) Single woman only
C) Widow remarrying early
D) Married man alone
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
B) Cohabiting scandalously
C) Seducing a minor
D) Living together without marriage
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Publishing defamatory articles
B) Threatening another
C) Swearing falsely
D) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Dangerous Drugs Act
B) Cybercrime Law
C) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
D) Revised Penal Code only
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Safe Spaces Act
B) Anti-Terrorism Act
C) Local Government Code
D) Juvenile Justice Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Drug trafficking
B) Gender-based sexual harassment
C) Human trafficking
D) Illegal detention
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Human trafficking
B) Robbery
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Libel
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Suspicion
B) Doubt
C) Probability
D) Reasonable doubt
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Prima facie evidence
C) Substantial evidence
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Fingerprints
B) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
C) Physical objects
D) Written contracts
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Tangible objects
B) Oral testimony
C) Demonstrations
D) Written instruments and documents
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) There is no eyewitness
B) There is only one circumstance
C) The accused confesses
D) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Material only
B) Relevant only
C) Competent only
D) Relevant and competent
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Conclusive
B) Admissible
C) Preferred
D) Inadmissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Equipoise doctrine
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Res gestae doctrine
D) Plain view doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Best evidence rule
B) Character evidence rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Mandatory
B) Inadmissible
C) Admissible
D) Conclusive
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Best evidence rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Character evidence rule
D) Opinion rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Marked
B) Copied
C) Attached to records
D) Appreciated by the court
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Witness only
B) Adverse party
C) Prosecutor only
D) Judge only
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Marking
B) Authentication
C) Identification
D) Certification
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A judicial notice
B) A sworn written statement
C) A search warrant
D) A subpoena
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Denial and alibi
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Public opinion
B) Police report alone
C) Its own evidence
D) Defense evidence
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) MTC
B) RTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) DOJ
D) Supreme Court
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Drug cases
B) Election offenses
C) Family cases
D) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Complaint or Information
B) Appeal only
C) Petition only
D) Memorandum only
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 10 years
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Innocent until proven guilty
B) Liable
C) Guilty
D) Dangerous
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Illegal search
B) Double jeopardy
C) Excessive bail
D) Delay in proceedings
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to property
C) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
D) Right to travel
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Probable cause
B) Rumor
C) Suspicion
D) Conviction
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Escapee arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The penalty
B) The place to be searched and things to be seized
C) The prosecutor
D) The witnesses
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Allowed only in drug cases
B) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
C) Invalid always
D) An exception to the warrant requirement
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Probable cause
B) Damages
C) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Exact penalty
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Civil liability
B) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
C) Penalty to be imposed
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Prosecutor
B) Judge
C) Police officer
D) Barangay captain
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Reduce penalty
B) Acquit the accused
C) Terminate the case
D) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Bail hearing
B) Issuance of warrant
C) Cross-examination
D) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Sentencing only
B) Valid arraignment and plea
C) Arrest only
D) Filing of complaint only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
B) Refuses to hire counsel
C) Is a minor
D) Has not been arraigned
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) Adverse counsel
B) The party presenting the witness
C) The judge only
D) The clerk of court
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Introduce judgment
B) Repeat testimony
C) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
D) Dismiss the case
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Is at least 18 years old
B) Is related to the victim
C) Has written testimony
D) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Escapee arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
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