CRIM 3: Human Behavior And Victimology - Quiz
  • 1. This term describes the idea that specific thoughts, behaviors and emotions are considered deviant when they are unacceptable or not common in society.
A) Danger
B) Deviance
C) Dysfunction
D) Distress
  • 2. This term involves dangerous or violent behavior directed at the individual, or others in the environment. An example of dangerous behavior that may suggest a psychological disorder is engaging in suicidal activity
A) Distress
B) Danger
C) Dysfunction
D) Deviance
  • 3. This term accounts for negative feelings by the individual with the disorder. He or she may feel deeply troubled and affected by their illness.
A) Distress
B) Danger
C) Deviance
D) Dysfunction
  • 4. This term involves maladaptive behavior that impairs the individual's ability to perform normal daily functions, such as getting ready for work in the morning, or driving a car
A) Dysfunction
B) Distress
C) Deviance
D) Danger
  • 5. is something deviating from the normal or differing from the typical, is a subjectively defined behaviors characteristic, assigned to those with rare or dysfunctional conditions.
A) Psychopathology
B) Abnormal Behavior
C) Deviance
D) Danger
  • 6. is the scientific study of mental disorders, including efforts to understand their genetic, biological, psychological, and social causes, effective classification schemes (nosology); course across all stages of development; manifestations, and treatment.
A) Abnormal behavior
B) Anxiety
C) Mental Disorder
D) Psychopathology
  • 7. The word abnormal means away from the norm.
A) Personal Distress
B) Deviation from Statistical Norm
C) Deviation from Social Norm
D) intelligence
  • 8. It is statistically abnormal for a person get a score about 145 on an IQ test or to get a score below 55, but only the lowest score is considered abnormal.
A) Maladaptive Behavior
B) Maladaptive to Society
C) Intelligence
D) Deviation from Statistical Norm
  • 9. A person who is anxious all the time or has ahigh level of anxiety and someone who almost never feels anxiety are all considered to be abnormal.
A) Personal Distress
B) Intelligence
C) Deviation from Statistical Norm
D) Anxiety
  • 10. Every culture has certain standards for acceptable behavior, behavior that deviates from that standard is considered to be abnormal behavior
A) Deviation from Statistical Norm
B) Personal Distress
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Deviation from Social Norm
  • 11. This third criterion is how the behavior affects the well- being of the individual and/or social group. A man who attempts suicide or a paranoid individual who tries to assassinate national leaders are illustrations under this criterion. The two aspects of maladaptive behavior are: (nahihirapan mag adopt or nahihirapan mag adjust sa society)
A) Deviation from Statistical Norm
B) Maladaptive to Society
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Maladaptive Behavior
  • 12. It refers to the inability of a person to reach goals or to adapt the demands of life.
A) Maladaptive to Society-
B) Maladaptive Behavior
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Personal Distress
  • 13. It refers to a person's obstruction or disruption to social group functioning.
A) Maladaptive to One's self
B) Maladaptive to Society
C) Deviation from Social Norm
D) Personal Distress
  • 14. The fourth criterion considers abnormality in terms of the individual's subjective feelings, personal distress, rather than his behavior. Most people commonly diagnosed as mentally ill.
A) Intelligence
B) Personal Distress
C) Maladaptive Behavior
D) Maladaptive to One's self
  • 15. is a broad term used to group physical and psychological symptoms that cause abnormal thoughts and behaviors.
A) Abnormal Behavior
B) Mental Retardation
C) Deviance
D) Mental Disorder
  • 16. a condition of limited ability in which an individual has a low Intelligence Quotient (IQ), usually below 70 on a traditional intelligence test, and has difficulty adapting to everyday life: he/she first exhibited these characteristics during the so-called developmental period by age 18.
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Profound Mental Retardation
C) Severe Mental Retardation
D) Mental Retardation (MR)
  • 17. About 10% of the mentally retarded population is considered moderately retarded. Moderately retarded persons have IQ scores ranging from 35-55. They can carry out work and self- care tasks with moderate supervision.
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 18. About 3-4% of the mentally retarded population is severely retarded. Severely retarded persons have 1Q scores of 20-40. They may master very basic self-care skills and some communication skills
A) Severe Mental Retardation
B) Moderate Mental Retardation
C) Mild Mental Retardation
D) Profound Mental Retardation
  • 19. Only 1-2% of the mentally retarded population is classified as profoundly retarded. Profoundly retarded individuals have IQ scores under 20-25
A) Mild Mental Retardation
B) Moderate Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 20. reflects a very general mental capability that, among other things, involves the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly and learn from experience.
A) Mental Disorder
B) Mental retardation
C) Criminal behavior
D) Human intelligence
  • 21. CRIMINAL LAW AND INTELLIGENCE What is the McNaughton (M'Naghten) Rule?
A) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1843, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
B) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1833, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
C) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1853, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
D) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1873, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
  • 22. What is the Durham Rule?
A) Any person who has committed a crime while the said person was imbecile or insane during the commission.
B) substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
C) an accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act is the product of mental disease or mental defect.
D) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
  • 23. What is ALI Substantial Capacity Test?
A) Some States added to their statutes this doctrine which is also known as "irresistible impulse" recognizing some ill individuals may respond correctly but may be unable to control their behavior
B) The new rule stated that a person is not responsible for his criminal act if, as a result of the mental disease or defect, he lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
C) known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, as amended by Republic Act 10630, raised the criminal exemption from 9 to 15 years old
D) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
  • 24. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.
A) Repression
B) Rationalization
C) Delusion of Persecution
D) Self-actualization
  • 25. Which Freudian personality component operates according to the pleasure principle?
A) Superego
B) Ego
C) Id
D) Conscience
  • 26. Which personality component follows the reality principle in Freud's theory?
A) Id
B) Ego
C) Superego
D) Conscience
  • 27. Which Freudian component represents internalized moral standards?
A) Ego
B) Id
C) Superego
D) Conscience
  • 28. What is a phobia?
A) A temporary lack of motivation
B) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
C) A normal preference for privacy
D) A form of criminal punishment
  • 29. What does PTSD stand for?
A) Personal Trauma and Stress Disorder
B) Psychological Treatment and Safety Diagnosis
C) Persistent Thought and Sleep Disturbance
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder.
  • 30. Which is a common possible response to a traumatic event?
A) Improved memory in every case
B) Intrusive memories or nightmares
C) Permanent loss of all emotions
D) Guaranteed violent behavior
  • 31. What is a defense mechanism?
A) A police protection strategy
B) A psychological process that helps manage anxiety or conflict
C) A legal argument
D) A method of physical punishment
  • 32. What is a personality trait?
A) A legal responsibility
B) A relatively enduring characteristic of a person
C) A single temporary emotion
D) A physical injury
  • 33. What is an important principle when assessing abnormal behavior?
A) Diagnose someone based on one unusual action
B) Consider symptoms, context, distress, and impairment
C) cultural differences as proof of illness
D) Assume every unusual behavior is criminal
  • 34. Which statement about mental illness and criminality is most accurate?
A) Mental illness automatically removes legal responsibility
B) Every person with a mental disorder is dangerous
C) Mental illness does not automatically mean a person is violent or criminal
D) Mental illness always causes criminal behavior
  • 35. Which theory explains behavior through rewards and punishments?
A) Humanistic theory
B) Psychoanalytic theory
C) Operant conditioning
D) Trait theory
  • 36. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
B) Unconscious dreams only
C) Genetic inheritance alone
D) Physical appearance
  • 37. What is differential association theory primarily concerned with?
A) Punishment as the only cause of crime
B) Biological differences between people
C) Personality development during infancy
D) Learning criminal behavior through interaction with others
  • 38. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Travis Hirschi
B) Edwin H. Sutherland
C) Robert Merton
D) Edwin Lemert
  • 39. What does strain theory examine?
A) How witnesses remember faces
B) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
C) How physical injuries heal
D) How fingerprints identify offenders
  • 40. What is labeling theory concerned with?
A) The biological origins of personality
B) How societal labels can influence identity and behavior
C) The punishment for every offense
D) physical causes of injury
  • 41. Which theory emphasizes the importance of bonds to family, school, and society in discouraging crime?
A) Trait theory
B) Classical conditioning
C) Psychoanalytic theory
D) Social control theory
  • 42. There is dysfunctional conflict if conflict disrupts, hinders job performance, and upsets personal psychological functioning
A) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
B) Dysfunctional Conflict
C) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
D) Functional Conflict
  • 43. There is functional conflict if conflict is responsive and innovative aiding in creativity and viability.
A) Dysfunctional Conflict
B) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
C) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
D) Functional Conflic
  • 44. What is the main idea of routine activity theory?
A) Every crime is caused by mental illness
B) Punishment always prevents crime
C) Crime opportunities arise when a motivated offender, suitable target, and absence of a capable guardian converge
D) Crime is determined entirely by birth
  • 45. Study or do the dishes. I don't want this and I don't want that. A woman with an unwanted pregnancy may be morally opposed by abortion
A) Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict
B) Approach-Approach Conflict
C) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
D) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
  • 46. What is the main purpose of studying criminal behavior in criminology?
A) To assume everyone will commit a crime
B) To justify discrimination against suspects
C) To understand possible causes and support prevention and rehabilitation
D) To excuse every unlawful act
  • 47. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Genetic inheritance alone
B) Unconscious dreams only
C) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
D) Physical appearance
  • 48. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Robert Merton
B) Edwin H. Sutherland
C) Edwin Lemert
D) Hirschi
  • 49. What does strain theory examine?
A) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
B) How physical injuries heal
C) How fingerprints identify offenders
D) How witnesses remember faces
  • 50. What is the purpose of offender rehabilitation in relation to victim and community safety?
A) To guarantee that reoffending becomes impossible
B) To transfer responsibility for crime to the victim
C) To support behavioral change and reduce the risk of reoffending
D) To eliminate the need for accountability
  • 51. Why should crime victims be treated without discrimination?
A) So investigators can avoid legal procedures
B) To uphold dignity, equality, and fair access to services.
C) So victims will always agree with authorities
D) So that only selected victims receive assistance
  • 52. Which is an example of cybervictimization?
A) Receiving a routine school announcement
B) Attending an online class
C) Reading a public news report
D) Being targeted by online harassment or unauthorized disclosure of private information
  • 53. What is an appropriate response to a victim experiencing severe anxiety after a crime?
A) Force the victim to confront the offender
B) Assume the victim is lying
C) Offer support and, when appropriate, referral to a qualified mental health professional
D) Tell the victim to forget the incident
  • 54. What is the purpose of victim impact statements?
A) To allow witnesses to decide guilt
B) To explain how an offense affected the victim, subject to applicable court procedures
C) To guarantee a particular sentence
D) To replace all physical evidence
  • 55. Which is an example of community-based crime prevention?
A) Organizing lawful neighborhood safety and awareness programs
B) Ignoring suspicious safety concerns
C) Publicly identifying all crime victims
D) Encouraging people to take revenge
  • 56. What is restorative justice primarily concerned with?
A) Addressing harm, accountability, and appropriate opportunities for repair
B) Removing victims from the justice process
C) Preventing offenders from accepting responsibility
D) Increasing punishment in every case
  • 57. What is a safety plan?
A) A list of criminal penalties
B) A practical plan to reduce danger and identify support resources
C) A document that guarantees an offender's arrest
D) A record of a victim's personality traits
  • 58. What does confidentiality mean in victim assistance?
A) Hiding every crime from authorities
B) Refusing to provide any assistance
C) Sharing information with friends
D) Protecting private information and disclosing it only when authorized or legally required
  • 59. What is the best way to respond when a victim discloses abuse?
A) Listen respectfully, take the disclosure seriously, and explain available help
B) Blame the victim for the incident
C) Immediately post the story online
D) Promise a guaranteed conviction
  • 60. should an investigator do when interviewing a child victim?
A) Publicly disclose the child's identity
B) Follow child-sensitive procedures and protect the child's welfare
C) Use threatening questions to obtain answers
D) Allow unauthorized people to observe the interview
  • 61. Which law penalizes photo and video voyeurism in the Philippines?
A) Republic Act No. 9995
B) Republic Act No. 6981
C) Republic Act No. 9262
D) Republic Act No. 7610
  • 62. Which law established a comprehensive program for children in conflict with the law and juvenile justice?
A) Republic Act No. 9344, as amended by RA 10630
B) Republic Act No. 7877
C) Republic Act No. 9262
D) Republic Act No. 9165
  • 63. What is a trauma-informed approach?
A) Requiring victims to describe every detail
B) Assuming every victim reacts identically
C) Ignoring emotional reactions
D) Recognizing trauma's effects and avoiding practices that may cause further harm
  • 64. What is the first priority when assisting a victim in immediate danger?
A) Protecting the victim's immediate safety
B) Preparing a court presentation
C) Interviewing every witness
D) Completing paperwork
  • 65. What is the main objective of victim support services?
A) To prevent victims from reporting crimes
B) To guarantee conviction in every case
C) To promote safety, recovery, information, and access to assistance
D) To force victims to forgive offenders
  • 66. Which is a possible consequence of victimization?
A) Every victim develops a mental disorder
B) Every victim becomes an offender
C) Every victim loses the ability to work
D) Physical injury, emotional distress, or financial loss
  • 67. What is victim restitution?
A) A form of community gossip
B) A psychological diagnosis
C) A method of witness intimidation
D) An order requiring an offender to compensate a victim for eligible losses
  • 68. what is a victimization survey used for?
A) Gathering information about people's experiences of crime, including
B) Measuring the personality of judges
C) Replacing every police investigation
D) Determining guilt without trial
  • 69. What does the term victim precipitation traditionally examine?
A) Whether victim-related actions or interactions played a role in the sequence of events
B) The amount of compensation received
C) The sentence imposed on an offender
D) The number of police officers at a scene
  • 70. A which is an example of indirect victimization?
A) A thief losing stolen property
B) A police officer completing a report
C) A judge issuing a ruling
D) family member experiencing distress after a loved one is murdered
  • 71. What is a direct victim?
A) A person who reads about a crime
B) A person who prosecutes an offender
C) A person who directly suffers harm from an offense
D) A person who investigates a crime
  • 72. What is revictimization?
A) Attending a court hearing
B) Reporting an incident
C) Experiencing victimization again
D) Receiving compensation
  • 73. What is secondary victimization?
A) Harm caused only by court proceedings
B) Harm caused by media reports
C) Harm directly resulting from the criminal act
D) Harm caused by social stigma after a crime
  • 74. What is victimization?
A) The classification of criminal evidence
B) The process through which a person experiences harm or becomes a victim
C) The rehabilitation of a convicted person
D) The process of sentencing an offender
  • 75. Who is commonly credited with introducing the term victimology?
A) Benjamin Mendelsohn
B) Edwin Sutherland
C) Cesare Lombroso
D) Robert Merton
  • 76. What is victimology?
A) The study of fingerprints
B) The study of prison architecture
C) The study of victims, victimization, and its consequences
D) The study of police administration
  • 77. What is personality?
A) A person's permanent physical appearance
B) A person's educational attainment
C) A person's characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving
D) A person's social status only
  • 78. Which process involves learning society's norms and values?
A) Frustration
B) Regression
C) Isolation
D) Socialization
  • 79. What is motivation?
A) A type of punishment
B) A process that directs and energizes behavior
C) A person's physical appearance
D) An inherited physical trait
  • 80. Which term describes the ability to understand another person's feelings?
A) Aggression
B) Prejudice
C) Empathy
D) Conformity
  • 81. What is perception?
A) Controlling another person
B) Memorizing every event
C) Punishing inappropriate behavior
D) Interpreting sensory information
  • 82. Which psychologist is associated with social learning theory?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Sigmund Freud
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Albert Bandura
  • 83. What is reinforcement?
A) A method of avoiding all social contact
B) A consequence that increases the likelihood of a behavior
C) A type of memory loss
D) A permanent personality disorder
  • 84. Which term refers to behavior that violates accepted social norms?
A) Cooperation
B) Adaptation
C) Deviance
D) Socialization
  • 85. What is aggression?
A) Following a lawful instruction
B) Behavior intended to harm another person
C) Helping a person in need
D) Showing sympathy toward others
  • 86. What is frustration?
A) A learned academic skill
B) A state arising when goals are blocked
C) A form of social reward
D) Complete emotional stability
  • 87. What is conformity?
A) Diagnosing a psychological disorder
B) Adjusting behavior to group expectations
C) Rejecting every social rule
D) Acting without awareness
  • 88. What is cognitive development primarily concerned with?
A) Changes in physical appearance only
B) Changes in criminal penalties
C) Changes in thinking, learning, and reasoning
D) Changes in legal procedures
  • 89. Which theory emphasizes personal growth and human potential?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Psychoanalytic theory
C) Humanistic theory
D) Conflict theory
  • 90. What is heredity?
A) Transmission of genetic characteristics from parents
B) Learning through punishment
C) Acquiring knowledge from school
D) Learning social expectations
  • 91. What is the primary focus of developmental psychology?
A) Changes in people across their lifespan
B) Crime-scene processing
C) Criminal sentencing
D) Police organizational structure
  • 92. What is a social role?
A) A criminal investigation technique
B) A person's genetic makeup
C) Expected behavior associated with a particular position
D) A medical diagnosis
  • 93. Which term refers to the process of remembering information?
A) Conditioning
B) Memory
C) Perception
D) Motivation
  • 94. What is the nature-versus-nurture debate about?
A) Punishment versus rehabilitation
B) Genetic influences versus environmental influences on behavior
C) Police versus courts
D) Victims versus witnesses
  • 95. What is a phobia?
A) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
B) A normal preference for privacy
C) form of criminal punishment
D) temporary lack of motivation
  • 96. What is displacement in psychology?
A) Forgetting every childhood experience
B) Accepting responsibility for a mistake
C) Redirecting emotions from their original source to another target
D) Learning through observation
  • 97. What is projection?
A) Copying a successful person's behavior
B) Attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person
C) Avoiding a dangerous location
D) Developing a new habit
  • 98. What is emotional intelligence?
A) The ability to avoid every conflict
B) The ability to memorize laws quickly
C) The ability to recognize and manage emotions
D) The ability to control other people
  • 99. Which term describes learning by observing another person's behavior?
A) Extinction
B) Repression
C) Observational learning
D) Displacement
  • 100. Which concept refers to a person's belief in their ability to perform a task successfully?
A) Frustration
B) Self-esteem
C) Conformity
D) Self-efficacy
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