A) January 1, 1932 B) January 1, 1930 C) December 8, 1930 D) July 4, 1946
A) Generality B) Prospectivity C) Judicial discretion D) Territoriality
A) A foreign tourist commits an ordinary crime abroad. B) A public officer commits an offense abroad in the exercise of official functions. C) A private citizen violates a foreign country's law. D) A Filipino commits any crime in any foreign country.
A) Generality B) Favorability C) Legality D) Irretroactivity
A) The accused must always serve the original penalty. B) The new law applies only to crimes committed by public officers. C) The favorable penal law may apply retroactively. D) The new law can never apply to past offenses.
A) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea B) Stare decisis C) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege D) Res judicata
A) Only acts resulting in actual injury B) Only negligence C) Only deliberate intent D) Intentional acts or culpable acts arising from imprudence or negligence
A) Dolo B) Irresistible force C) Culpa D) Accident
A) Culpa B) Conspiracy C) Treachery D) Proposal
A) The accused must prove innocence. B) Criminal statutes must be liberally construed against the accused. C) Doubts in the interpretation of penal laws or in criminal liability are generally resolved in favor of the accused. D) Doubts must always favor the prosecution.
A) When all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. B) When the offender merely forms the intention to commit it. C) When the offender is arrested. D) When the victim files a complaint.
A) Attempted homicide B) Frustrated homicide C) Impossible crime D) Consummated homicide
A) Frustrated homicide in all cases B) Consummated homicide C) Impossible crime D) Attempted homicide or attempted murder, depending on the circumstances
A) The presence of criminal intent B) The existence of a victim C) Whether the offender has performed all acts of execution D) The offender's apprehension
A) Attempted B) Consummated C) Preparatory D) Frustrated
A) Frustrated theft B) Attempted theft C) No possible criminal liability under any circumstances D) Consummated theft
A) Light felonies are never punishable. B) Light felonies are punishable only when committed by public officers. C) Light felonies are punishable only when consummated, except those committed against persons or property. D) All light felonies are punishable even when merely attempted.
A) Only when all conspirators are arrested B) When the law specifically provides a penalty for conspiracy C) Only when the intended felony is consummated D) In every case, even when the law does not provide a penalty for conspiracy
A) When a person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person or persons B) The actual performance of all acts of execution C) An agreement between two or more persons to commit a felony D) The concealment of a crime after its commission
A) Frustrated robbery B) Not punishable as conspiracy under the RPC unless the law specifically penalizes it C) Consummated robbery D) Attempted robbery
A) Public, private, and administrative offenses B) Grave, less grave, and light felonies C) Intentional, negligent, and accidental offenses D) Continuing, complex, and special offenses
A) An administrative offense B) A light felony C) A grave felony D) A less grave felony
A) Praeter intentionem principle B) Rule on double jeopardy C) Rule of lenity D) Principle of territoriality
A) Extenuating circumstance only B) Justifying circumstance C) Impossible crime D) Absolutory cause
A) The offender must have criminal intent. B) The act would be an offense against persons or property were it not for the inherent impossibility or ineffectual means. C) The act is inherently incapable of accomplishment or uses inadequate or ineffectual means. D) The intended offense must actually be consummated.
A) Minority in every case B) Insanity in every case C) Accident without negligence D) Passion or obfuscation
A) Previous conviction of the aggressor B) Serious injury to the defender C) A prior demand to stop D) Unlawful aggression
A) Unlawful aggression B) Lack of sufficient provocation C) Voluntary surrender D) Reasonable necessity of the means employed
A) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the defender B) The aggressor must die or suffer serious physical injuries C) Reasonable necessity of the means employed D) Unlawful aggression
A) The defender must not be motivated by revenge, resentment, or another evil motive. B) The stranger must be a public officer. C) The defender must have been attacked first. D) The defender must be related to the stranger.
A) Quasi-recidivism B) Avoidance of a greater evil or injury C) Treachery D) Recidivism
A) Passion or obfuscation B) Voluntary surrender C) Minority D) Fulfillment of a duty or lawful exercise of a right or office
A) The subordinate is automatically exempt if acting during work hours. B) The exemption requires an order issued for a lawful purpose. C) Every order of a superior is presumed lawful. D) Obedience always exempts the subordinate from liability.
A) Evident premeditation B) Treachery C) Abuse of confidence D) Irresistible force
A) Exempting circumstance of insanity B) Alternative circumstance of intoxication C) Mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender only D) Aggravating circumstance of treachery
A) Liable only for civil damages and never subject to intervention B) Exempt from criminal liability, subject to applicable juvenile justice law C) Exempt only if the offense is a light felony D) Always criminally liable as an adult
A) Abuse of confidence B) Treachery C) Recidivism D) Discernment
A) Accident B) Mistake of fact in every case C) Irresistible force D) Uncontrollable fear
A) Alternative circumstance B) Qualifying circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) An exempting circumstance B) Recidivism C) Treachery D) A qualifying circumstance
A) Evident premeditation B) Dwelling C) Treachery D) Voluntary surrender
A) Spontaneous and made to acknowledge guilt or save authorities the trouble and expense of search and capture B) Made only after serving the sentence C) Made only after conviction D) Required by a court order after arrest
A) A justifying circumstance B) An exempting circumstance C) An aggravating circumstance D) A mitigating circumstance
A) Recidivism B) A mitigating circumstance involving lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong C) A qualifying circumstance D) Treachery
A) Treachery B) Abuse of confidence C) Praeter intentionem D) Evident premeditation
A) Recidivism B) Quasi-recidivism C) Treachery D) Mitigating circumstance of sufficient provocation
A) Voluntary surrender B) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong C) Plea of guilty D) Treachery
A) Accident B) Voluntary surrender C) Passion or obfuscation D) Treachery
A) Voluntary surrender B) Accident C) Minority D) Dwelling
A) Yes, in every case B) Yes, whenever the offense occurs after 6:00 p.m. C) No; it must be shown to have been purposely sought or to have facilitated the crime, or otherwise satisfy the applicable legal requirements D) No, because nighttime can never aggravate a crime
A) Treachery B) Unlawful aggression C) Evident premeditation D) Intoxication
A) Neither habitual nor intentional B) Habitual and intentional C) Automatically proven by the offender's testimony alone D) Always present whenever alcohol is consumed
A) Relationship is always mitigating. B) Relationship is always aggravating. C) Relationship is never considered by the court. D) Its effect depends on the nature of the crime and the statutory rules.
A) First offender B) Recidivist C) Principal by inducement D) Quasi-recidivist in every case
A) They are exactly the same. B) Quasi-recidivism involves committing a new felony after conviction by final judgment and before beginning to serve, or while serving, sentence for a prior conviction, as provided by law. C) Quasi-recidivism applies only to negligent felonies. D) Recidivism requires the second offense to occur while serving sentence.
A) Accessories only B) Accomplices only C) Principals only D) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
A) Accessory only B) Witness C) Principal by direct participation D) Civilly liable person only
A) Principal by direct participation in every case B) Accomplice only C) Principal by inducement, if the legal requisites are met D) Accessory after the fact only
A) Witness B) Victim C) Accessory only D) Principal by indispensable cooperation
A) Accessory B) Principal by inducement in all cases C) Accomplice D) Exempt person
A) Principal by direct participation B) Accessory C) Victim D) Accomplice before the fact
A) Being related to the offender without assisting B) Concealing or destroying the body of the crime to prevent its discovery C) Reporting the crime to authorities D) Merely witnessing the crime without participating
A) All accessories are liable for every felony regardless of circumstances. B) An accessory must always be present during execution. C) An accessory is necessarily the person who planned the crime. D) Article 19 specifies acts that may make a person an accessory, subject to statutory exceptions.
A) All persons who provide shelter B) All public officers C) All friends of the principal D) Certain relatives of the principal, as specified by law
A) Every person present at the scene is automatically guilty. B) All crimes require conspiracy. C) The act of one conspirator may be attributable to the others in the execution of the common design. D) Agreement alone always establishes guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
A) Reparation of damages B) Indemnification C) Reclusion temporal D) Restitution
A) Fine classified as a light penalty B) Public censure C) Reclusion temporal D) Arresto menor
A) Reclusion temporal B) Reclusion perpetua C) Death D) Prision correccional
A) Prision mayor B) Arresto menor C) Prision correccional D) Reclusion temporal
A) To permit courts to invent penalties for any conduct B) To allow retroactive imposition of harsher penalties C) To remove the requirement of a criminal statute D) To prohibit the imposition of a penalty not prescribed by law before the commission of the offense
A) Legality of penalties B) Civil indemnity C) Territoriality D) Generality
A) Persons guilty of a felony, even if serving sentence, subject to the law's exceptions B) Only persons who have not been charged C) No person convicted before the law's enactment D) Only persons who are public officers
A) The maximum penalty is always imposed. B) The minimum penalty is always imposed. C) The court applies the statutory rules governing the proper period or degree of the penalty. D) Courts disregard all circumstances
A) They cannot be imposed by a court. B) They are imposed according to the applicable statutory rules for indivisible penalties and relevant circumstances. C) They apply only to civil liability. D) They are always divided into three periods.
A) To govern the application of penalties divisible into three periods when the circumstances specified by law are present B) To define impossible crimes C) To extinguish civil liability automatically D) To determine territorial jurisdiction
A) The number of aggravating circumstances B) The number of criminal cases that may be filed C) The amount of civil indemnity in every case D) The maximum duration of the convict's service of multiple penalties
A) Thirty years in every case B) Twenty years in every case C) The sum of all penalties in every case D) Three times the most severe penalty, subject to the statutory maximum of forty years
A) Payment of civil indemnity only B) Arresto mayor C) Restitution only D) Confiscation of proceeds only
A) It may be imposed only as authorized by law and subject to applicable limits and exceptions. B) It may be imposed without statutory authority. C) It is mandatory for every unpaid civil debt. D) It applies to all civil damages.
A) They are never imposed by operation of law. B) They are equivalent to civil damages. C) They may attach to principal penalties as provided by law. D) They are always independent of principal penalties.
A) Voluntary surrender B) Plea of guilty C) Prescription of the crime D) Payment of civil damages alone
A) Only accessory penalties B) All civil obligations of the deceased, including those unrelated to the crime C) Criminal liability and civil liability ex delicto, subject to applicable law and jurisprudence D) Only civil liability arising from the crime
A) It is merely a mitigating circumstance. B) It prevents the offended party from seeking restitution in every case. C) It automatically extinguishes every civil obligation. D) It is a mode of total extinction of criminal liability.
A) A pardon may remit the penalty as provided by law, but does not automatically extinguish civil liability. B) A pardon always extinguishes civil liability. C) A pardon automatically erases the historical fact of conviction for all purposes. D) A pardon is the same as acquittal.
A) It is the payment of a fine. B) It is the victim's forgiveness of the offender. C) It is the reduction of a penalty by the court. D) It is the expiration of the period within which the State may prosecute, as determined by law.
A) The offender's occupation alone B) The location of the police station C) The victim's age alone D) The penalty prescribed by law and the applicable statutory rules
A) Amnesty B) Conditional pardon C) Prescription of the crime D) Death of the convict
A) Deduction from the term of imprisonment for qualifying good conduct, subject to law B) The amount of civil indemnity C) The determination of conspiracy D) The classification of felonies
A) It is granted by a private complainant. B) It is a governmental act that may extinguish criminal liability for covered offenses, subject to constitutional and legal requirements. C) It automatically applies to every crime. D) It is identical to voluntary surrender.
A) Both apply only to light felonies. B) Prescription of a crime concerns the period to prosecute, while prescription of a penalty concerns the period to enforce a penalty imposed by final judgment. C) There is no legal distinction between them. D) Both mean that the offender has paid civil damages.
A) Liable only for imprisonment B) Automatically disqualified from all employment C) Exempt from restitution D) Civilly liable
A) Arrest B) Imprisonment C) Disqualification from public office D) Restitution
A) The victim agrees to waive all rights in every case B) The accused has already served the sentence C) The property has sentimental value only D) Restitution is legally available, subject to the statutory protection for certain third-party acquisitions
A) A pardon granted by the President B) Payment for the damage caused, determined by the court in accordance with the law C) A reduction of the penalty D) Imprisonment of the accused
A) The injured party's family or a third person because of the crime, as legally established B) Only the accused C) No one other than the direct victim under any circumstances D) Only the police officer who investigated the crime
A) The court B) The victim alone, without judicial determination C) The police investigator D) The barangay captain in every case
A) Any order chosen by the victim without regard to law B) Accessories, accomplices, then principals C) Principals, then accomplices, then accessories D) Accomplices, accessories, then principals
A) Serve the principal's entire sentence B) Make restitution equivalent to the extent of participation in the proceeds C) Pay an automatic fine of ₱100,000 D) Return nothing because the participation was gratuitous
A) Automatically ends when imprisonment ends B) Is extinguished by the mere passage of one year C) Continues notwithstanding service of sentence or certain forms of remission of the penalty, unless the civil liability is otherwise extinguished D) Ends whenever the offender receives a pardon
A) Criminal liability and civil liability are identical in all respects. B) Acquittal always extinguishes every form of civil liability. C) Civil liability can never arise from a felony. D) Civil liability may survive in circumstances recognized by law even when criminal liability is extinguished, depending on the ground and applicable legal rules. |