CDI-2 SCIMED - Quiz
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The type of weapon used
C) The offender's intent to kill
D) The location of the crime scene
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Recording witness names
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Victim’s previous criminal history
C) Type of weapon used
D) Relationship between victim and suspect
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the offender
B) Method of killing
C) Location of the crime
D) Age of the victim
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
B) Assessment of social status of victim
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Time of day the injury occurred
B) Victim's income
C) Family background of the victim
D) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Checking family history
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Assessing economic status of suspect
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) None of the above
B) Physical evidence collection
C) Both A and B
D) Motive and opportunity
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
B) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
C) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
D) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
C) Dismiss minor injuries
D) Conduct online investigations exclusively
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Economic status of members
C) Group dynamics and initiation processes
D) Public opinion
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating traffic violations
B) Investigating burglary
C) Conducting environmental crime inspections
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Financial records of the accused
B) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
C) Previous employment history of the victim
D) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Familial relationships and tensions
B) Offender's prior criminal record
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Victim’s clothing choice
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Checking prior vacations of victim
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) All of the above
B) Reconstructing crime sequence
C) Determining motive
D) Identifying potential witnesses
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Profiling neighbors
C) Investigating local schools
D) Identification of caretaker or mothe
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Neither A nor B
B) Temporary or permanent
C) Simple or grave
D) Both A and B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Making consent of victim irrelevant
B) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
C) Allowing hazing in private clubs
D) Reducing police involvement
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
D) Scheduling court dates
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) Biological samples
C) All of the above
D) Weapon traces
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Assumptions about intent
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Dismissal of medical records
D) Social media monitoring
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Linking physical evidence to suspect
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Recording victim’s financial status
D) Evaluating weather at time of death
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Avoiding workplace inspections
B) Ignoring victim testimony
C) Checking only criminal history
D) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
B) Inspecting clothing of victim
C) Social media monitoring
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Financial transactions
B) Neighborhood survey
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Confession or admission of suspect
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
B) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
C) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
D) Ignoring complaints filed online
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
C) Publicizing case details immediately
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Neighborhood demographics
B) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Victim’s social media activity
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Employment status of the parents
B) Maternal history and forensic evidence
C) Economic background of the victim
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Ignoring minor injuries
B) Verifying location aesthetics
C) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
D) Checking social media posts only
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Determine suspect wealth
B) Dismiss victim credibility
C) Corroborate facts and detect deception
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Evaluating neighborhood trends
B) Tracking public transport usage
C) Recording victim’s hobbies
D) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Victim’s financial records only
B) Weather conditions exclusively
C) Neighbors’ opinions only
D) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Political affiliations
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Location of residence
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Personal relationships of witness
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Track economic background
D) Assess neighborhood ratings
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Vacation plans
B) Public transportation habits
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Workplace records
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Social media presence
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
D) School enrollment history
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Focus only on financial evidence
B) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Financial audit of victim
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Determine neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
C) Track public opinion
D) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
C) Location aesthetics
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Ignoring minor offenses
C) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
D) Focusing on financial disputes
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Assessing neighborhood ratings
B) Tracking employment records
C) Evaluating social media posts
D) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Ignoring anonymous reports
B) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
B) Investigating unrelated family disputes
C) Monitoring neighbors
D) Evaluating victim’s social media history
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Monitoring public opinion
B) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
C) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
D) Focusing on witness’s financial status
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Tracking school enrollment
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
D) Evaluating neighborhood social status
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Tracking social media popularity
B) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
C) Death of individual organs
D) Death of the entire body
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Death of the brain only
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death of the organism as a whole
C) Death caused by trauma
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Cellular death
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
B) Chronic kidney failure
C) Senility
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death due to natural causes
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death from natural aging
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) Due to homicide or accident
B) As a consequence of disease or aging
C) By sudden trauma
D) By suicide
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death due to natural illness
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) External injuries indicating intentional harm
C) Natural disease
D) Cellular autolysis
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Aging
C) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
D) Cancer
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Accidental
B) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
C) Pathological only
D) Natural
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
B) Death due to secondary complications
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
C) Complications following the primary cause
D) None of the above
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Legal documentation
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Poison ingestion
B) Bacterial infection
C) Heart failure
D) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
B) Cooling of the body after death
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Blood pooling in dependent parts
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
C) Decomposition of internal organs
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
B) Cooling of the body
C) Decomposition
D) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
B) Livor mortis
C) Algor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Skeletonization
B) Mummification
C) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
D) LAdvanced decomposition
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Hypothermia
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Physical exertion before death
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sepsis
D) Cold temperature
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Livor mortis
C) Putrefaction
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It affects the entire body uniformly
B) It is reversible
C) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
D) It occurs gradually
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
C) Blood pooling
D) Skin cooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In dry and arid conditions
B) Immediately after death
C) Only in cold environments
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
B) Blood settling in dependent parts
C) Cooling of the body
D) Discoloration of skin
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) None of the above
B) Only environmental temperature
C) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
D) Only cause of death
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Only cadaveric spasm
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Circumstantial evidence only
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
B) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Wound caused by chemical burns
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
C) Caused by blunt trauma
D) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Length greater than depth
B) Depth greater than length
C) Always fatal
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Chemical agents
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
B) Wound with irregular margins
C) Deep stab wound
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Deep penetrating wound
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Palms or forearms
B) Legs
C) Back
D) Abdomen
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Only produced by blunt objects
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Always fatal
D) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Superficial only
B) Sharp edges
C) Only in muscles
D) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
B) Only superficial scraping
C) Only bruises
D) Complete removal of tissue
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Are smooth and clean
B) Show no tissue damage
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Cannot be analyzed
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Wound is post-mortem
B) Victim attempted to protect self
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Victim was unaware
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Size of wound
B) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Only presence of blood
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Electrical injury
C) Chemical burns
D) Blunt force with tearing
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Extensive tissue bridging
B) Irregular margins
C) Infection
D) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) No bleeding occurs
B) Only cartilage is involved
C) Skin is intact
D) Bone pierces the skin
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Cause only
B) Shape only
C) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
D) Age of victim
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Only superficial injuries
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
D) Both are identical
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only post-mortem staining
B) Only discoloration
C) No bleeding
D) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
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