Microsoft SQL Server - Quiz
  • 1. What are the two modes of concurrency control provided by SQL Server?
A) Pessimistic and optimistic concurrency
B) Table-level and row-level locking
C) Exclusive and shared locking
D) Latch and spinlock control
  • 2. What does an exclusive lock grant to the user?
A) Priority queue access to tables
B) Exclusive access to the data
C) Shared access with other users
D) Read-only access to the data
  • 3. What is true about shared locks?
A) Multiple users can read data simultaneously
B) They are only applied to index leaves
C) They prevent all other reads
D) They allow exclusive locks to be acquired
  • 4. Who defines the granularity level for locking in SQL Server?
A) The end-user client
B) The database administrator
C) The SQL Server optimizer
D) The Lock Manager
  • 5. What is a disadvantage of fine-grained locking?
A) It cannot be used on indexes
B) It automatically reduces performance
C) It blocks all other users
D) It requires more resources
  • 6. What are the two lightweight mutual exclusion solutions mentioned?
A) Latches and spinlocks
B) Version IDs and metadata
C) Transactions and rollbacks
D) Shared locks and exclusive locks
  • 7. What happens when SQL Server detects a deadlock?
A) It pauses all threads until the deadlock clears
B) It kills one of the threads and rolls back the transaction
C) It restarts the entire database instance
D) It forces all threads to use optimistic concurrency
  • 8. What component maintains an in-memory table of database locks?
A) The Lock Manager
B) The Worker Thread Monitor
C) The Tempdb system
D) The Latch Controller
  • 9. Where are old versions of rows moved in optimistic concurrency?
A) The index leaf nodes
B) The main data table
C) Tempdb
D) The transaction log
  • 10. In optimistic concurrency, how is a row version identified?
A) By the system timestamp only
B) By the user who initiated the update
C) By the row's physical memory address
D) By the ID of the transaction that created the version
  • 11. What happens to other requests when a row is being updated under optimistic concurrency?
A) They are immediately blocked
B) They are rejected with an error
C) They are moved to a waiting queue until the transaction ends
D) They are executed on the older version of the row
  • 12. Which of the following is true about locks and latches?
A) Latches are less resource intensive than locks
B) Locks are used for DMVs while latches are used for tables
C) Locks are more lightweight than latches
D) Latches are more robust than locks
  • 13. Can multiple clients access the same database concurrently in SQL Server?
A) Only if they are using optimistic concurrency
B) Only if the database is read-only
C) Yes
D) No, only one client at a time
  • 14. What level of granularity can locks be applied to for indexes?
A) Database level only
B) Pages only
C) Entire index or index leaves
D) Rows only
  • 15. Which SQL Server version is Microsoft Data Engine 1.0 based on?
A) SQL Server 6.5
B) SQL Server 2000
C) SQL Server 2005
D) SQL Server 7.0
  • 16. Which version is Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine based on?
A) SQL Server 7.0
B) SQL Server 2000
C) SQL Server 2008
D) SQL Server 2005
  • 17. What was the eventual replacement for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) SQL Server Compact Edition
B) SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter
C) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
D) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
  • 18. What is another name for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) Mobile Edition
B) Standard Proxy
C) Desktop Engine
D) Web Server Edition
  • 19. Which of the following did Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine NOT include?
A) Web admin tool
B) Database engine capabilities
C) Microsoft Access compatibility
D) A GUI
  • 20. Which edition was intended for use as a mobile/disconnected proxy in SQL Server 2000?
A) Windows CE Edition
B) Datacenter Edition
C) Personal Edition
D) Desktop Engine
  • 21. What is a characteristic of Personal Edition's database size?
A) 10 GB limit
B) No size limit
C) 4 GB limit
D) 1 GB limit
  • 22. Which feature did not work in Windows 98 for SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition?
A) Standard management tools
B) Transactional replication
C) Full-Text Search
D) SQL connectivity
  • 23. How many logical processors does SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter support?
A) 512
B) 256
C) 64
D) 128
  • 24. What replaced the Windows CE Edition?
A) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
B) SQL Server Compact 3.5
C) SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition
D) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
  • 25. What replaced SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition?
A) SQL Server Compact 3.5
B) SQL Server 2008 R2
C) SQL Server 2005 Compact Edition
D) Windows CE Edition
  • 26. Who originally designed and developed TDS in 1984?
A) Microsoft
B) IBM
C) Sybase Inc.
D) Oracle
  • 27. Which of the following transport protocols can TDS be encased in?
A) SMTP
B) FTP
C) UDP only
D) TCP/IP
  • 28. Which tool is used for Stress Testing and Performance Analysis in SQL Server 2000?
A) Read80Trace
B) SQLXML
C) PSSDIAG
D) Best Practices Analyzer
  • 29. Up to which service pack was Reporting Services included as a supplemental package for SQL Server 2000?
A) Service Pack 4
B) Service Pack 1
C) Service Pack 3
D) Service Pack 2
  • 30. In what year was the first version of Microsoft SQL Server released?
A) 1985
B) 1993
C) 1989
D) 1995
  • 31. What feature was introduced in SQL Server 2012?
A) Linux support
B) OS/2 support
C) Columnar in-memory storage (xVelocity)
D) Big Data Clusters
  • 32. What was the codename for SQL Server 2000?
A) NT-OS
B) Big Data
C) Shiloh
D) xVelocity
  • 33. Which processor architecture is required for SQL Server 2016 and beyond?
A) x86
B) PowerPC
C) ARM
D) x64
  • 34. What is the release date of Microsoft SQL Server 2025?
A) November 18, 2025
B) January 1, 2025
C) December 25, 2025
D) November 30, 2024
  • 35. What is the maximum database size supported by SQL Server Enterprise Edition?
A) 12 terabytes
B) 524 petabytes
C) 640 petabytes
D) 100 terabytes
  • 36. How much memory can SQL Server Enterprise Edition address?
A) 524 gigabytes
B) 1 terabyte
C) 12 terabytes
D) 640 terabytes
  • 37. How many logical processors does SQL Server Enterprise Edition support?
A) 1024
B) 12
C) 524
D) 640
  • 38. Which feature is absent in SQL Server Standard edition but present in Enterprise?
A) Hot-add memory
B) SQL cluster management
C) Stand-alone services
D) Core database engine
  • 39. Which tool is included in the Business Intelligence edition?
A) SQL Server Management Studio Basic
B) Hot-add memory
C) Power Pivot
D) Parallel indexes
  • 40. What is the current database file size limit for SQL Server Express?
A) 50 GB
B) 4 GB
C) 10 GB
D) 1 TB
  • 41. What is the database file limit for SQL Server Express prior to 2025?
A) 50 GB
B) 1 GB
C) 10 GB
D) 4 GB
  • 42. Which architecture does Azure SQL Data Warehouse use for analytics workloads?
A) Embedded architecture
B) Single-threaded processing
C) Client-server architecture
D) Massively parallel processing (MPP)
  • 43. When did Microsoft make the Developer Edition free of charge to the public?
A) 2020
B) Early 2016
C) 2005
D) 2012
  • 44. What is the time limit for the SQL Server Evaluation Edition?
A) 180 days
B) 90 days
C) 365 days
D) 30 days
  • 45. Which edition is designed for enterprise-scale data warehousing and runs on optimized reference-architecture hardware?
A) SSEE
B) Compact Edition
C) LocalDB
D) Fast Track
  • 46. Who is LocalDB primarily designed for?
A) Mobile device users
B) Application developers
C) Database administrators
D) Cloud architects
  • 47. What is the primary unit of I/O for SQL Server operations?
A) Allocation unit
B) Extent
C) Partition
D) Page
  • 48. What is the size of a single SQL Server page?
A) 16 KB
B) 4 KB
C) 8 KB
D) 2 KB
  • 49. What is the file extension for primary data files?
A) .ldf
B) .db
C) .mdf
D) .ndf
  • 50. What is the file extension for log files?
A) .mdf
B) .ldf
C) .ndf
D) .log
  • 51. How many pages are contained in one extent?
A) 4
B) 16
C) 32
D) 8
  • 52. What is the term for server statistics available as virtual tables?
A) System Statistics Tables
B) Dynamic Management Views
C) Performance Monitors
D) Virtual Data Objects
  • 53. Which structure stores rows in an unordered manner?
A) B-tree
B) Heap
C) Clustered index
D) Partition
  • 54. What is the size of the header that marks a page?
A) 128 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 96 bytes
D) 64 bytes
  • 55. Which data type is used for unstructured blobs of data?
A) binary
B) Float
C) Integer
D) Varchar
  • 56. What is the name for the set of all pages currently buffered in memory?
A) Transaction heap
B) Buffer cache
C) Disk storage
D) System log
  • 57. How are I/O operations handled when writing pages back to disk?
A) Sequential I/O
B) Networked I/O
C) Synchronous I/O
D) Asynchronous I/O
  • 58. What is written along with a page when it is saved to disk?
A) A checksum
B) An encryption key
C) A time stamp
D) A user ID
  • 59. What is the name of the variant of SQL used by Microsoft SQL Server?
A) PL/SQL
B) T-SQL
C) PostgreSQL
D) MySQL
  • 60. What is the sequence of actions necessary to execute a query called?
A) Query plan
B) Stored procedure
C) Data retrieval
D) SQL dialect
  • 61. Which component is responsible for choosing the most efficient query plan?
A) Database administrator
B) Network interface
C) Client application
D) Query processor
  • 62. What is the process of choosing the query plan expected to yield the fastest results called?
A) Data serialization
B) Index restructuring
C) Schema mapping
D) Query optimization
  • 63. What is the primary reason for SQL Server sharing a dialect with Sybase SQL Server?
A) Industry standard compliance
B) Cloud compatibility
C) Performance benchmarks
D) Legacy
  • 64. What factor might lead the optimizer to avoid using an index?
A) Low selectivity
B) High system load
C) Complex joins
D) Large table size
  • 65. What is the full name of the procedural language extension for Microsoft SQL Server?
A) Transact-SQL
B) Template-SQL
C) Transfer-SQL
D) Table-SQL
  • 66. Which component is responsible for managing memory, threading, and resources for .NET in SQL Server?
A) ADO.NET
B) CLR Host
C) SQLOS
D) Windows OS
  • 67. How are management operations typically performed in T-SQL?
A) Via system-defined stored procedures
B) Via direct memory manipulation
C) Via external PowerShell scripts
D) Via GUI configuration files
  • 68. In SQL CLR, what language can be used to write stored procedures?
A) T-SQL exclusively
B) Native C++ only
C) Assembly code only
D) Any managed .NET language
  • 69. What is used to define custom types that can persist in a SQL Server database?
A) System stored procedures
B) External XML schemas
C) Managed code (UDTs)
D) SQLOS assemblies
  • 70. Which of the following is an example of an ADO.NET enhancement in SQL Server?
A) Automatic memory garbage collection
B) Context connections
C) Direct hardware communication
D) GUI development tools
  • 71. Which of the following is a typical system task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Writing SQL code documentation
B) Installing third-party software
C) Modifying Windows registry keys
D) Scheduling maintenance plans
  • 72. Which of these is a log shipping sub-task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Backup, copy, restore & check
B) User password recovery
C) Graphics rendering
D) Table deletion and indexing
  • 73. Which of the following is a proprietary package included with SQL Server Machine Learning services?
A) scikit-learn
B) pandas
C) revoscalepy
D) numpy
  • 74. What defines the data format of a message in Service Broker?
A) Contract
B) Route
C) Queue
D) Message type
  • 75. What entity defines which messages are used in a conversation and who can access the queue?
A) Contract
B) Message type
C) Service program
D) Route
  • 76. How are Service Broker queues implemented internally by SQL Server?
A) As flat text files
B) As encrypted objects
C) As virtual memory buffers
D) As tables
  • 77. Which operation is NOT supported on Service Broker queues?
A) Processing
B) Insert
C) Receiving
D) Storage
  • 78. What represent the network addresses where a service broker is located?
A) Message types
B) Queues
C) Routes
D) Contracts
  • 79. Which security feature is supported by Service Broker?
A) Biometric authentication
B) Physical firewall control
C) Password recovery
D) Message encryption
  • 80. Which model does SQL Server Replication Services follow?
A) Publisher/subscriber model
B) Master/slave model
C) Client/server model
D) Peer-to-peer model
  • 81. Which type of replication synchronizes databases in near real time?
A) Transactional replication
B) Merge replication
C) Distributed replication
D) Snapshot replication
  • 82. What is required on a column if merge replication is configured?
A) Rowguid
B) Primary key
C) Index
D) Foreign key
  • 83. Which replication type replicates a copy of the database and does not track further changes?
A) Transactional replication
B) Merge replication
C) Bi-directional replication
D) Snapshot replication
  • 84. What type of synchronization does Merge replication provide?
A) Real-time only
B) Bi-directional
C) Manual only
D) Unidirectional
  • 85. What is the underlying communication protocol for Analysis Services?
A) SOAP
B) XML for Analysis
C) SQL/RPC
D) REST
  • 86. Which query language is used for data mining functionality in SSAS?
A) MDX
B) DMX
C) LINQ
D) T-SQL
  • 87. Which of these is a supported data mining algorithm in Analysis Services?
A) Naive Bayes
B) Merge sort
C) Hash join
D) B-Tree indexing
  • 88. Which of these algorithms is included for data mining in Analysis Services?
A) QuickSort
B) A* search
C) Neural networks
D) Dijkstra's algorithm
  • 89. What is the primary function of SSRS?
A) Full-text indexing
B) Database administration
C) Report generation
D) Data warehousing
  • 90. In what format are SSRS reports created?
A) SQL files
B) PDF files
C) RDL files
D) XML files
  • 91. Which tool can be used to design SSRS reports?
A) Data Transformation Services
B) SQL Server Management Studio
C) Filter Daemon
D) Report Builder
  • 92. Which of these is NOT a supported rendering format for SSRS reports?
A) CSV
B) PDF
C) DOCX
D) JPEG
  • 93. Which is NOT a method used by Notification Services to send messages?
A) SMTP
B) SOAP
C) HTTP POST
D) Writing to a filesystem file
  • 94. When was Notification Services discontinued by Microsoft?
A) December 2000
B) August 2008
C) January 2005
D) March 2010
  • 95. What is the main purpose of SSIS?
A) ETL capabilities
B) Web report interface
C) Full-text searching
D) Notification management
  • 96. What is the maximum rank value in Full Text Search?
A) 500
B) 255
C) 1000
D) 100
  • 97. What is the name of the Filter Daemon process?
A) msftefd.exe
B) sqlservr.exe
C) msftesql.exe
D) ssis.exe
  • 98. What is the name of the Search process?
A) sqlindexer.exe
B) msftesql.exe
C) gatherer.exe
D) msftefd.exe
  • 99. What component monitors changes to tables and invokes the indexer?
A) Thesaurus
B) Query Processor
C) Filter Daemon
D) Gatherer
  • 100. What are commonly occurring, non-useful words filtered out by the indexer called?
A) Empty fragments
B) Excluded tokens
C) Noise words
D) Stop tags
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