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ISMANA (Finals) - Quiz
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Subversion
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Body Frisking
C) Allow free access
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Espionage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Mental attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Moving Attack
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Advance Security
C) Close in Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Moving Attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Mental attitude
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Driver Rule
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Mental Attitude
D) Novice Criminal
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Advance Security
C) Modus Operandi
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Advance Security
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Alertness
C) Slang usage
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Speak continuously without pause
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Messaging security
C) Telephone
D) Walkie-talkies
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Symbolic Art
C) Oral language
D) Written language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) The tool used to write
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Designing building architecture
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) Supplier delays
C) External cyber attacks
D) Competitor activity
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A financial audit of company assets
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It guarantees fast results
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It helps save money
D) It ensures cooperation and resources
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Background checks
B) Staff scheduling
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Emergency drill
B) Security survey
C) Fire inspection
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To hire new security staff
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Survey is done after inspection
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Location
B) Loud and clear
C) Copied message
D) Radio check
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Repeat message
C) Copied message
D) Location
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Copied message
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Repeat message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Radio check
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed and locates the witnesses
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Render obedience and proper conduct
D) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effectively uses investigation
B) Plaster cast
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Interview the company
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Locate and protect
D) Locates the identifies the witnesses
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Indirect Approach
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview and locates the offender
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Morse code
B) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate everyone
B) Interrogate the crime scene
C) Interrogate the suspect/offender
D) Interrogate the people
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all happen
C) Note all
D) Note all conditions, events and remarks
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the following statements
B) Arrange
C) Arrange of the people
D) Arrange for the collection of evidence
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports everyone
B) Reports the incident fully and accurately
C) Reports the offender
D) Report me
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
B) Yields the following statements
C) Yields the following individuals
D) Yields the conducting regular inspections
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