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AREA 3 SUBJECT 3 - Quiz
Contributed by: gutierrez
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Interview
B) Elicitation
C) Cross-examination
D) Interrogation
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
B) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
C) Both are the same under Philippine law.
D) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Direct approach
B) Logical approach
C) Emotional appeal
D) Coercive technique
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right to bail
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Before the barangay captain
B) Under oath and notarized
C) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
D) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Miranda Doctrine
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Rule on res gestae
D) Chain of custody rule
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To shorten the process of interrogation
B) To protect the investigator from liability
C) To make the suspect feel guilty
D) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Confession
B) Res gestae
C) Admission
D) Dying declaration
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declarant was under police custody
B) The declaration was made before a lawyer
C) The statement was in writing.
D) The declarant believed death was imminent.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Rule of Res Gestae
B) Doctrine of dying declaration
C) Doctrine of finality
D) Principle of truthfulness
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Independent relevant statements
B) Admissions
C) Confessions
D) Res gestae
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A doctor’s report describing injuries
B) A suspect’s confession to police
C) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
D) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made after prolonged questioning
B) It was made without counsel
C) It was written in English
D) It was made in private
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Structured interview
B) Coercive interview
C) Cognitive interview
D) Investigative interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Confess guilt
B) Recall events from different perspectives
C) Guess what happened
D) Create a timeline
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
B) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
C) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
D) Signed before an ordinary witness
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Partially admissible
B) Inadmissible
C) Conditional
D) Admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) They are synonymous in criminal law
B) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
C) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
D) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The investigator’s experience
B) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
C) The seriousness of the crime
D) The number of witnesses
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Continue the questioning
B) Stop the interrogation immediately
C) Detain the suspect longer
D) Use persuasion
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Cognitive Interview
B) Cross-Examination Approach
C) Structured Interview
D) Narrative Method
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Silence technique
B) Theme development
C) Repetition technique
D) Emotional appeal
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
B) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
C) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
D) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
B) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
C) The confession remains admissible
D) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
B) It must be in writing
C) It must be expressed and categorical
D) It must be voluntary
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
B) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
C) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
D) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
B) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
C) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
D) Admissible because it was later confirmed
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Admission
C) Dying declaration
D) Part of res gestae
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Necessity and trustworthiness
B) Materiality and spontaneity
C) Opportunity and impartiality
D) Voluntariness and legality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Qualified admission
B) Judicial admission
C) Tacit confession
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
B) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
C) Deception invalidates all statements
D) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Dying declaration
B) Confession
C) Res gestae statement
D) Admission against interest
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Coerced confession
B) Admissible due to continuous questioning
C) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
D) Voluntary admission
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) test the validity of gathered evidence
B) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
D) To obtain a confession
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Admission
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Hearsay
D) Confession
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
B) The declaration must be in written form
C) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
D) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible because counsel was present
B) Valid if re-affirmed later
C) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
D) Inadmissible for being involuntary
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Narrative reconstruction
B) Hypnosis technique
C) Investigative visualization
D) Cognitive interviewing
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible only in part
B) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
C) Admissible as corroborative evidence
D) Admissible in full
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Dying declaration
B) Inadmissible hearsay
C) Admission against interest
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
B) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
C) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
D) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Approach phase
B) Preparation phase
C) Question-and-answer phase
D) Termination phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Use of psychological manipulation
B) Rapid confessional tactics
C) Extracting confession through pressure
D) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
B) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
C) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
D) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Physical pressure
B) Deception and bluffing
C) Emotional appeal and sympathy
D) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Cross-examination
B) Preliminary interview
C) Cognitive interrogation
D) Investigative debriefing
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Considered res gestae
B) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
C) Admissible in evidence
D) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Obtain physical evidence
B) Intimidate the suspect to confess
C) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Gather information without accusation
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
B) The declarant must be under oath
C) The declarant must identify the killer
D) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Res gestae
B) Confession
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Admission
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The number of offenders
B) The value of the property stolen
C) The intent to gain
D) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Conducting a background check on the victim
B) Tracing the stolen property
C) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
D) Filing the case immediately
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Suspect profiling
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Crime scene reconstruction
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
B) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
C) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
B) Property inventory
C) CCTV footage
D) Confession of the accused
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Carnapping
B) Estafa
C) Qualified theft
D) Robbery
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
C) Without violence but with intent to gain
D) With violence or intimidation only
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Reclusion temporal
B) Death by lethal injection
C) Life imprisonment
D) Reclusion perpetua to death
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Locate the driver
B) Identify the manufacturer
C) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
D) Determine insurance status
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Those who report stolen property
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Only those who steal cars
D) Those who physically steal property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The absence of intent to gain
B) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The ownership of the property
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Driver’s license
B) Sales invoice
C) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
D) Insurance policy
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused buys property from a store
B) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
C) The accused was seen near the crime scene
D) The property is found hidden
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
B) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
C) Punish the original thief
D) Reduce robbery incidents
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Recruitment for legal overseas work
B) Use of minors in employment
C) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
D) Payment of recruitment fees
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
B) Allowing voluntary prostitution
C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
D) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Increasing fines
B) Reducing penalties for traffickers
C) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
D) Limiting law enforcement authority
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
B) Immediate deportation
C) Aggressive interrogation
D) Media exposure
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Exploitation of prostitution
B) Forced labor
C) Adoption following legal procedures
D) Debt bondage
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Placement
B) Structuring
C) Layering
D) Integration
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
B) Investing clean money
C) Depositing the proceeds
D) Reporting suspicious transactions
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) Authorities freeze the assets
B) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
C) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
D) The launderer hides the funds abroad
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Regulate pawnshops
B) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
C) Encourage secret banking
D) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Exempt institutions
B) Charitable organizations
C) Covered persons under AMLA
D) Non-reporting entities
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Layered transaction
B) Threshold transaction
C) Covered transaction
D) Suspicious transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) A criminal violation under AMLA
B) Administrative offense only
C) No liability if unintentional
D) Gross negligence
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
B) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
C) Securities and Exchange Commission
D) Department of Justice
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Establishing the suspect’s income
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Checking bank accounts
D) Identifying the victim’s negligence
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Recovery of stolen property only
B) Studying the suspect’s financial background
C) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
D) Conducting digital forensics
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Suspect’s criminal record
B) The victim’s wealth
C) Place of transaction only
D) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) No consequence
B) Administrative sanction
C) Forfeiture of insurance claims
D) Presumption of involvement in the crime
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Fencing
B) Theft
C) Estafa
D) Carnapping
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The depositor is a senior citizen
B) The account is new
C) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
D) The account balance is low
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Paper and digital transaction audit
B) Bank advertisements
C) News reports
D) Witness interviews
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) International cooperation and evidence tracing
B) Media pressure
C) Political influence
D) Lack of police equipment
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Robbery
B) Carnapping
C) Estafa
D) Theft
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Use of deception or false pretenses
B) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
C) Relationship between victim and offender
D) The monetary value of the property stolen
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Financial and documentary audit
B) Vehicle tracing system
C) Physical evidence collection at the scene
D) Property recovery operation
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Documentary and bank receipts
B) Computer logs and online records
C) Vehicle registration documents
D) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) DNA evidence
B) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
C) Physical evidence at the crime scene
D) Eyewitness testimony
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle is sold to another person
B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
C) When the owner reports the loss
D) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Theft
B) Qualified carnapping
C) Robbery
D) Simple carnapping
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Amount of profit derived from the property
B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
C) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
D) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Fencing
B) Estafa
C) Innocent purchase
D) Theft by negligence
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Accounting audit of business operations
B) Collection of firearms evidence
C) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
D) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
B) Violation of labor regulations
C) Employment abroad
D) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10364
B) R.A. 9208
C) P.D. 1612
D) R.A. 10883
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Repatriation without consent
B) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
C) Non-deportation of foreign victims
D) Immunity of recruiters
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Placement
B) Concealment
C) Layering
D) Integration
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Structuring
B) Placement
C) Layering
D) Integration
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