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ISMANA (Finals) CABS - Quiz
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Subversion
C) Pilferage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Level of Education
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Allow free access
C) Issue of weapons
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Vandalism
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The visibility of the asset
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Moving Attack
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Mental attitude
D) Novice Criminal
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental Attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Modus Operandi
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Pleasantness
C) Expressiveness
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Creation of laws
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Avoid using any code's
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) Long pauses
C) All codes and acronyms
D) Slang and unnatural language
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Audio hailer
C) Messaging security
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Location
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Review the state of physical security
C) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Boosting sales
C) Training new recruits
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) Competitor activity
C) External cyber attacks
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A routine fire drill
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Background checks
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Staff scheduling
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Security survey
C) Emergency drill
D) Fire inspection
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
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