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Introduction to Philippines criminal system - Quiz
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Probable cause rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) Citizen’s arrest rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right to privacy
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to travel
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Seek mandamus from RTC
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) File a case with the Ombudsman
D) File a new complaint
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to presumption of innocence
B) Right to counsel
C) Plea bargaining
D) Plea bargaining
E) Right to confrontation
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Pre-trial agreement
C) Plea bargaining
D) Conditional pardon
E) Plea in abeyance
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Rule on double jeopardy
B) Requisite of written judgment
C) Requirement of promulgation
D) Doctrine of finality
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Correct Answer: C
B) Commutation
C) Parole
D) Probation
E) Pardon
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Retribution
B) Isolation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Punishment
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Citizen’s initiative
D) Restorative justice
E) Social control
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reintegration
C) Reformation
D) Reconciliation
E) Rehabilitation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Arbitrary arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to privacy
E) Due process
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid under plain view doctrine
B) Invalid; no warrant
C) Valid if with barangay clearance
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Needs corroboration only
B) Admissible if voluntary
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Admissible if signed
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Chain of custody
B) Professional integrity
C) Command responsibility
D) Discretionary authority
E) Professional integrity
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Preventive detention
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Illegal arrest
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Report but leave items
B) Ignore; not in warrant
C) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Secure new warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Violation of RA 9745
B) . Grave coercion
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Arbitrary detention
E) Physical injuries
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Officer disciplined only
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
D) Evidence still valid
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Abuse of authority
C) Instinctive reaction
D) Lawful arrest procedure
E) Justified self-defense
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Valid; fruits of crime
B) Admissible after consent
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid if authenticated
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Valid if crime serious
B) Arrest void
C) Arrest void
D) Grounds for demotion only
E) Simple irregularity
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Continue filing against original suspect
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Suppress new evidence
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Peace negotiation
B) Private security
C) Civil defense
D) Community policing
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case remanded to DOJ
B) Accused acquitted
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Case dismissed
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Res judicata
B) Sub judice rule
C) Professional secrecy
D) Due process
E) Professional secrecy
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Dismissal outright
C) Waiver of objection
D) Court orders reinvestigation
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Res judicata
B) Professional secrecy
C) Sub judice rule
D) Due process
E) Professional secrecy
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
B) Require explanation from police
C) Refer to higher DOJ authority
D) Require explanation from police
E) Prosecutor must file case anyway
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Endorse to Ombudsman
B) Allow reinvestigation
C) Deny for being repetitive
D) File case immediately
E) mAllow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
B) File administrative case
C) Move for inhibition
D) Move for inhibition
E) Ignore unless proven
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Strong suspicion based on evidence
D) Absolute proof of guilt
E) Mere hunch of crime
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Keep it confidential
B) File case based on it
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Use it if it proves guilt
E) Return to police and disregard
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Verbal consent only
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) None; automatic right
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) Prosecutor approval
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Rule on multiplicity
B) Forum shopping
C) Res judicata
D) Rule on multiplicity
E) Double jeopardy
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
C) Court’s approval
D) Police approval
E) Automatic effect
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Ignore since unrelated
B) File case still
C) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
D) Request police correction
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) File immediately for delay
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Send to court for trial
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) Automatically dismiss
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Grave misconduct
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Malfeasance
D) Dereliction of duty
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Procedural regularity
C) Judicial courtesy
D) Prosecution’s ethical standard
E) Burden of proof
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the police concur
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the victim is absent
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
B) Evidence tampering
C) Improper intervention
D) Valid judicial discretion
E) Valid judicial discretion
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Allowed since the court erred
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Remanded for reinvestigation
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Elevated to DOJ
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Valid if signed
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Final after notice
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Effective if promulgated
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Issue bench warrant for arrest
B) Proceed to trial
C) Dismiss case for delay
D) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
E) Acquit for non-appearance
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Order reinvestigation
B) Convict for homicide
C) Dismiss case
D) Acquittal
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Admit confession if corroborated
C) Ignore since confession signed
D) Suspend trial
E) Exclude confession from evidence
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Exercise of discretion
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Judicial transparency
E) Sub judice exception
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Modify judgment to include it
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Ignore unless appealed
E) Nothing; penalty already imposed
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Valid
B) Valid
C) Suspended
D) Void
E) Discretionary
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial discipline only
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Judicial restraint
D) Administrative rules
E) Judicial impartiality
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Automatically dismissed
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Deferred until recapture
D) Continues
E) Converted to probation
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Exclude it from consideration
B) Allow if relevant
C) Defer ruling
D) Exclude it from consideration
E) Reopen preliminary investigation
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Require police reinvestigation
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Deny automatically
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Denial of speedy disposition
B) Judicial discretion
C) Denial of speedy disposition
D) Administrative negligence
E) Civil liability
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) No, double jeopardy always applies
C) Only in civil cases
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
B) Valid if court-approved
C) Allowed under RA 9165
D) Valid if voluntary
E) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Discretionary
B) Automatically final
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Valid
E) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Suspend proceedings
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Forward to Supreme Court
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Administrative oversight
B) Ethical irregularity only
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Courtesy
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Commutation
B) Conditional pardon
C) Parole
D) Probation
E) Parole
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Incapacitation
C) Deterrence
D) Rehabilitation
E) Retribution
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) Persons sentenced to death
C) Habitual delinquents
D) Escapees
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Extend parole
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Grant commutation
E) Terminate case
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Probation
B) Parole
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Penological screening
D) Custodial supervision
E) Rehabilitation planning
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Retributive justice
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Punitive discipline
D) Restorative rehabilitation
E) Deterrence
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) PNP Custodial Center
B) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
C) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
D) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
E) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Extend reporting period
B) Ignore for minor lapse
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Issue bench warrant
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Replace probation
B) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
C) Impose harsher penalties
D) Shorten imprisonment for all
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) DOJ
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) BJMP
D) BuCor
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Refiled for sentencing
B) Suspended for life
C) Converted to parole
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Restorative justice
B) Juvenile protection
C) Correctional segregation
D) Restorative justice
E) Equal punishment
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
C) Deny; sentence too short
D) Grant probation automatically
E) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Clemency
B) Credit of time served
C) Commutation
D) Benefit of parole
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Custodial punishment
B) Voluntary work detail
C) Institutional employment program
D) Administrative segregation
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10575
B) RA 9165
C) RA 10592
D) RA 10592
E) RA 6975
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Reduction of penalty
B) Conditional pardon
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Temporary release
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Limited recreation
B) Overcrowded facilities
C) Lack of parole supervision
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Deny automatically
B) Approve immediately
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Recommend to the court for approval
E) Request police clearance
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Correction
B) Restitution
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Social control
B) Community policing
C) Citizen’s watch
D) Community policing
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Collect barangay taxes
D) Impose imprisonment
E) Prosecute offenders
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
B) Avoiding accountability
C) Retribution
D) Punishment of the offender
E) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Civil participation
C) Social reintegration
D) Community service
E) Restorative leadership
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Volunteer citizen participation
B) Auxiliary law enforcement
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Civil defense
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Crime detection
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Imposing penalties
E) Prosecution of cases
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Death penalty
B) Victim-offender mediation
C) Life imprisonment
D) Preventive detention
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Effective policing
C) Weak community pillar
D) Strengthened judiciary
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Court
C) Community
D) Community
E) Prosecution
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Social defense
C) Restorative justice
D) Crime suppression
E) Restorative justice
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Increased penalties
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Political campaigns
D) Frequent arrests
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Community acceptance and support
B) Length of sentence
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Prison budget
E) Strict surveillance
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Deterrence principle
B) Rehabilitation
C) Social defense theory
D) Preventive justice
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Withholding evidence
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Ignoring crimes
D) Refusing to testify
E) Joining barangay peace councils
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Social disorganization
B) Labeling theory
C) Differential association
D) Labeling theory
E) Control theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Restorative intervention
B) Community policing
C) Social development approach
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Restorative sanction
C) Social control measure
D) Legal punishment
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Increasing penalties for all crimes
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Relying solely on police power
D) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
E) Isolating criminals permanently
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Political influence
B) Mutual distrust
C) Civil dependency
D) Partnership in justice
E) Partnership in justice
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