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SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯ - Quiz
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Deontology
B) Virtue Ethics
C) Utilitarianism
D) Relativism
E) Egoism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
B) Ayoko pang isipin.
C) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
D) Oo, sigurado ako!
E) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
B) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
C) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
D) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
E) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Procedures
B) Policies
C) People
D) Principles
E) Performance
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Lucrative
B) Legal
C) Legitimate
D) Logical
E) Limited
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) Only experts approved
C) It was temporary
D) Everyone did it
E) Management agreed
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Security protocols
B) Personal integrity and accountability
C) System requirements
D) Software standards
E) Stakeholder interests
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Only financial impacts
B) Who is affected and how
C) Just technical requirements
D) Limited to management
E) Exclusively legal aspects
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Financial rather than ethical
B) Short-term rather than long-term
C) Intent rather than impact
D) Impact rather than intent
E) Technical rather than social
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Limited to regulators
B) Exclusively competitors
C) End users, developers, clients, and society
D) Only management
E) Just investors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Exclusively timeline planning
B) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
C) Just budget analysis
D) Only technical evaluation
E) Limited to profit calculation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Budget constraints exist
B) Technical problems arise
C) Deadlines are missed
D) A moral dilemma
E) Requirements change
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
B) Technical limitations
C) Proper planning
D) Clear guidelines
E) Resource abundance
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Only if profitable
B) Based on cost
C) After management approval
D) Last
E) The severity of the bug
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Must not be ignored
B) Can be fixed later
C) Should be documented only
D) Can always be patched
E) May be acceptable with warnings
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
B) Following standards
C) Code reviews
D) Proper planning
E) Version control
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What maximizes profits
B) What meets deadlines
C) What follows standards
D) What the law allows or prohibits
E) What is technically efficient
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is technically efficient
B) What meets deadlines
C) What maximizes profits
D) What is morally right or responsible
E) What the law allows or prohibits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Everything
B) Only financial aspects
C) Nothing
D) Just technical performance
E) A system
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Technical requirements
B) Budget constraints
C) Industry trends
D) Team preferences
E) Ethical decision frameworks
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
B) Limited to PLUS Model
C) Exclusively Professional codes
D) Only PLUS Model
E) Just Stakeholder Analysis
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Abstract and optional
B) Only for large projects
C) Limited to experts
D) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
E) Separate from technical work
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Economic decision-making
B) Legal compliance
C) Technical problem-solving
D) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
E) Social relationships
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Cultural traditions
C) Natural phenomena
D) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Exclusively entertainment
B) Just business applications
C) Every aspect of daily life
D) Limited areas
E) Only scientific fields
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Only affects experts
B) Eliminates moral issues
C) Focuses solely on efficiency
D) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
E) It remains static
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Improved equality
B) Enhanced security
C) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
D) Job creation
E) Better privacy
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
B) Benefits of technology
C) Social improvements
D) Economic gains
E) Technical achievements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Limited to data display
B) Only data storage
C) Who owns data and how it's protected
D) Just data transmission
E) Exclusively data processing
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Limited to user experience
C) Exclusively speed improvement
D) Just cost reduction
E) Only technical efficiency
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Device type diversity
B) Unequal access to technology
C) Technology quality differences
D) Software version changes
E) Internet speed variations
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Exclusively platform design
B) Content moderation and misinformation spread
C) Limited to user interface
D) Just advertising
E) Only user engagement
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
B) Exclusively image analysis
C) Just speech processing
D) Only facial recognition
E) Limited to data storage
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Only social connections
B) Limited to content sharing
C) Exclusively user engagement
D) Data collection and privacy rights
E) Just advertising
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
B) Network infrastructure
C) Hardware manufacturing
D) Software testing
E) Database design
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Develop character
B) Maximize positive outcomes
C) Focus on traditions
D) Follow strict rules
E) Consider only individuals
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Relationship building
B) Personal happiness
C) Character development
D) Outcome maximization
E) Duty and moral rules
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Speed of delivery
B) Profit optimization
C) Honesty and integrity
D) Technical efficiency
E) Cost reduction
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Marginalized communities
B) Financial returns
C) Technical specifications
D) System performance
E) Development timelines
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Never during development
B) Exclusively in planning
C) Only after deployment
D) Just during testing
E) While creating technologies
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Costs
B) Technical progress
C) Future society
D) Only current users
E) Innovation
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Software sales
C) Database management
D) Hardware production
E) Network security
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Character-based theory
B) Situation-based theory
C) Culture-based theory
D) Consequentialist theory
E) Non-consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Maximizing personal gain
B) Following moral rules
C) Respecting individual rights
D) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Utilitarianism
B) Social Contract Theory
C) Relativism
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Deontology
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Outcomes or consequences of actions
C) Character and virtues
D) Intentions and motivations
E) Social norms
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) The most happiness for the most people
B) Developing virtuous character
C) Respecting individual rights
D) Maximizing personal gain
E) Following universal rules
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Knowledge and wisdom
B) Wealth and status
C) Fame and recognition
D) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
E) Power and influence
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Differs by gender
B) Changes with age
C) Varies by wealth
D) Depends on social status
E) Counts equally
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Cultural relativism
B) Social contract theory
C) Utilitarian decision-making
D) Deontological principles
E) Virtue ethics
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Leaving it to fate
B) Pulling the lever to save more lives
C) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
D) Consulting others
E) Finding another solution
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Follow moral rules
B) Ignore individual rights
C) Consider relationships
D) Develop character
E) Respect traditions
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Following clear rules
B) Maintaining impartiality
C) Developing character
D) Respecting traditions
E) Predicting and measuring outcomes
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Plato
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Aristotle
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Cultural norms
B) Set of rules regardless of consequences
C) Outcome-based calculation
D) Character development
E) Relationship building
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Accepted by society
B) Universalized without contradiction
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Developed through practice
E) Approved by authorities
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Controlling their actions
B) Ignoring their needs
C) Using them for personal benefit
D) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
E) Exploiting their weaknesses
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Moral duty
B) Cultural norm
C) Social expectation
D) Personal desire
E) Economic benefit
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Serve society
B) Contradict each other
C) Develop character
D) Follow traditions
E) Maximize happiness
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Social contracts
B) Following moral rules
C) Cultural traditions
D) Outcomes of actions
E) Character and virtues of the individual
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Aristotle
C) Plato
D) Immanuel Kant
E) John Stuart Mill
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Balance between deficiency and excess
B) Personal gain
C) Social approval
D) Maximum happiness
E) Strict rule following
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Flourishing or human happiness
B) Gaining power
C) Maximizing pleasure
D) Avoiding pain
E) Following rules
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Financial acumen
B) Management abilities
C) Marketing expertise
D) Courage, honesty, compassion
E) Technical skills
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Marketing strategies
B) Financial requirements
C) Technical specifications
D) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
E) Legal contracts
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
B) Maximum profits
C) Low costs
D) Fast delivery
E) Technical excellence
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Better marketing
B) Lower costs
C) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
D) Technical superiority
E) Faster development
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Reduce risks
B) Guide decision making in challenging situations
C) Achieve perfection
D) Maximize profits
E) Minimize time
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Guaranteed success
B) Fewer challenges
C) More profits
D) No mistakes
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Minimizing competition
B) Guaranteeing profits
C) Building credibility
D) Limiting innovation
E) Ensuring superiority
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Resource issues
B) Legal issues and reputation damage
C) Timeline delays
D) Budget overruns
E) Technical problems
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Following procedures
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Maximizing profits
D) Truthful and transparent dealings
E) Achieving goals
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Disclosing secrets
B) Ignoring privacy
C) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
D) Publicizing details
E) Sharing information
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) According to position
B) With respect without bias
C) Depending on wealth
D) Based on education
E) Based on performance
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Industry norms
B) Legal and regulatory requirements
C) Personal preferences
D) Team decisions
E) Company policies only
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Others' mistakes
B) Company failures
C) External factors
D) Market conditions
E) Actions and outcomes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Technical shortcuts
B) Minimal effort
C) Maximum profits
D) Quick solutions
E) Continuous learning and development
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Honest and competent services
B) Maximum discounts
C) Technical perfection
D) Fast delivery
E) Low prices
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Company secrets
B) Limited aspects
C) Client interests
D) All data
E) Personal information
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Marketing oriented
B) Financially focused
C) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
D) Sales driven
E) Technically skilled
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Maximizing performance
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Focusing on competition
E) Avoiding teamwork
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Financial success
B) Collaboration and respect
C) Superiority
D) Achievement
E) Competition
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Focusing on self
B) Maximizing gain
C) Limiting cooperation
D) Ignoring needs
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Reducing costs
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Achieving goals
D) Benefiting society and community
E) Maximizing profits
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Legal ramifications
B) Increased trust
C) Technical improvements
D) Career advancement
E) Financial gains
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Increased credibility
B) Technical expertise
C) Professional advancement
D) Financial success
E) Loss of trust
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Promotions
B) Bonuses
C) Salary increases
D) Suspension or termination
E) Additional duties
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Improved collaboration
B) Enhanced creativity
C) Decreased morale
D) Increased motivation
E) Better performance
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) User convenience
B) Financial results
C) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
D) Technical performance
E) Organizational goals
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Increased efficiency
B) Enhanced security
C) Better experience
D) Technical improvements
E) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Low costs
B) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
C) Fast delivery
D) Technical perfection
E) Maximum profits
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Competitive advantage
B) Technical superiority
C) Financial success
D) Market dominance
E) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Technical skills
B) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
C) Financial management
D) Quality assurance
E) Project delivery
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Resource limitations
B) Technical challenges
C) Communication issues
D) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
E) Team conflicts
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Design secure systems, conduct testing
B) Increase complexity
C) Maximize profits
D) Reduce costs
E) Minimize time
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
B) Minimize bandwidth
C) Maximize speed
D) Ignore monitoring
E) Reduce measures
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Maximum collection
B) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
C) Unlimited access
D) Fast processing
E) Low storage
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Research integrity, consider impact
B) Gain prestige
C) Publish quickly
D) Maximize publications
E) Secure funding
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Reduce complexity
B) Minimize costs
C) Ignore scalability
D) Maximize performance
E) Failure modes, embed security
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Minimize storage
B) Reduce backups
C) Increase access
D) Sensitive information, enforce control
E) Maximize performance
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