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CDI1-FINVIN - Quiz
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Ascertain facts to establish truth
B) Influence the statements of witnesses
C) Secure the conviction of the accused
D) Collect evidence for intelligence units
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Initial response phase
B) Termination phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Determining the essential information about a crime
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Drafting an intelligence cycle
D) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Persons who may testify only
B) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
C) Individuals present before the incident
D) Only the perpetrators
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Accuracy
C) Timeliness
D) Secrecy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Interview
B) Validation
C) Interrogation
D) Examination
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Collection
B) Dissemination
C) Processing
D) Planning and direction
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Arrest of suspects
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Replace interrogation
C) Create fear among suspects
D) Establish public visibility
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Termination
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Court prosecution
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Secrecy
B) Mobility
C) Accuracy
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Why
B) The “How”
C) The “When”
D) The “Who”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Canvassing
B) Surveillance
C) Photography
D) Notes
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Pressure them for a confession
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Influence their recall
D) Elicit firsthand observations
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Overt information
B) Covert collection
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Arresting without probable cause
B) Case linkage and further evidence search
C) Securing perimeter
D) Closing case files
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Where
B) Who
C) Why
D) Witness credibility
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Compatibility
B) Secrecy
C) Timeliness
D) Accuracy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Sketch
D) Note-taking
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Provide foundation for prosecution
B) Reduce the investigator’s workload
C) Avoid the need for witnesses
D) Confuse the defense counsel
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Prosecution phase
B) Initial response
C) Termination phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Counterintelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Identify the suspect immediately
B) Make a 3D reconstruction
C) Replace photography
D) Provide a scale representation of the area
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Accurate reporting
B) Objectivity
C) Coordination
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Surveillance planning
B) Source evaluation
C) Case termination
D) Arrest timing
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Low information value
B) Reactive investigative strategy
C) Failure of planning
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Tactical surveillance data
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Integration
B) Refutation
C) Exclusion
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Rapid reporting
B) Analytical risk assessment
C) Document reproduction
D) Specialized dissemination
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
C) Arrest by search warrant
D) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
B) Right to silence only
C) Right to a speed disposition
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Vertical, overlapping movement
B) Randomized checking pattern
C) Coordinated circular movement
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 10022
D) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Wheel search method
B) Spotlight method
C) Zone search method
D) Outward spiral method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Costudial remedy rule
C) Physical evidence doctrine
D) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Rough sketching
B) Polar coordinates
C) Triangulation method
D) Baseline method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 9745
B) Warrantless arrest doctrine
C) R.A. 7438
D) Search and seizure procedure
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Tail–relay method
C) Contact surveillance
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Substitute formal diagrams
B) Replace photography
C) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
D) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
B) Search for premises
C) Consent search
D) Administrative search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) R.A. 7438
C) Only search and seizure rules
D) R.A. 9745
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The corners of the crime scene
B) The central point moving outward
C) Random points decided by personnel
D) The outer boundaries moving inward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of surveillance
B) Physical integrity doctrine
C) Chain of custody
D) Harmonization
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Administrative rule for detention
B) Necessity of force principle
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The suspect verbally consented
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Evidence was already in plain view
B) Probable cause was independently established
C) Consent existed
D) Crime scene was already secured
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether sketches can be made later
B) Whether multiple teams are available
C) Whether the center is identifiable
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Rely solely on photographs
C) Present both sketches and let the court decide
D) Discard the rough sketch
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect already had a lawyer
B) Whether the officer recorded the moment
C) If the suspect was deceived
D) Whether the confession was spontaneous
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under stop-and-frisk
B) Valid under warrantless arrest
C) Valid under custodial rule
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Invalid for lack of counsel
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Valid if officer witnesses it
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether officers had a search warrant
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether suspect resisted
D) Whether consent was implied
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Random evidence retrieval
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Systematic crime scene search
D) Witness-led collection
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Classified information
B) Discarded information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Raw information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Weapon used
B) Underlying motive
C) Sequence of action
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Create confidential rumors
B) Support decision-making
C) Provide public entertainment
D) Replace investigators
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Impulsive decision-making
B) Prioritizing personal judgment
C) Overreliance on instincts
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Hearsay from neighbors
B) Tangible items related to the crim
C) Any verbal statement
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Strategic
B) Covert
C) Overt
D) Publicly available
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Crime scene processing
B) Follow-up phase
C) Dissemination phase
D) Court presentation
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Personal belongings of witnesses
B) All destroyed evidence
C) Instruments of the crime
D) Every item in the area
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Only investigators
B) Proper decision-makers
C) Any available personnel
D) The suspect
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Crime scene processing
B) Surveillance
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Neighborhood canvassing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Modus operandi
C) Motive
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Approach the suspect
B) Conduct interrogation
C) Collect fingerprints immediately
D) Secure and isolate the scene
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Structural intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Cause of death
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Weather Conditions
D) Evidence collected
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Shows exact appearance
C) Locates suspect
D) Create Investigation direction
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Identify the guilty party
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Satisfy public demand
D) Avoid filing cases
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Scene integrity
B) Witness credibility
C) Suspect
D) Confidential materials from adversaries
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Interrogation
B) Arrest warrant
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Judicial affidavit
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Processing
B) Case documentation
C) Termination
D) Follow-up
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Sketching
B) Interview
C) Surveillance
D) Interrogation
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Structural
B) Strategic
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Overt
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Conducting termination
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Evaluating investigative leads
D) Initial response
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Scene sketching
C) Verification
D) Motive analysis
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Coordination
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Pattern analysis
B) Case isolation
C) Witness evaluation
D) Accusation formulation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) The cardinal points
B) Note-taking
C) Deductive reasoning
D) Surveillance
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Preserving cover and concealment
C) Maintaining a fixed pace
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Dissemination
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Direction
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Strategic penetration
B) Evidence substitution
C) Securing informant identity
D) Randomizing interrogation
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Randomized tracking
B) Overt documentation
C) Interrogation technique
D) Pattern recognition
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Dissemination
B) Classification
C) Direction
D) Evaluation
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Classified agent
B) Danger informant
C) Accidental source
D) Regular informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Overclassification
B) Security labeling
C) Raw sorting
D) Encoding
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail-relay method
B) Contact surveillance
C) Direct trailing
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Planning and direction
B) Reclassification
C) Dissemination
D) Analysis
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Premature classification
B) Source validation
C) Tactical manipulation
D) Surveillance support
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Discarding all sources
B) Offensive surveillance
C) Random selection
D) Prioritization of information
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Dual-tracking
B) Rational shadowing
C) Cover selection
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Operational
B) Strategic
C) Administrative
D) Background
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Technical surveillance
B) Indirect canvassing
C) Controlled overt collection
D) Witness retrieval
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Proper document disposal
B) Interrogation secrecy
C) Information suppression
D) Covert misinformation
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Fragmented tracking
B) Combined (team) surveillance
C) Static intelligence
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Planning clarity
B) Document security
C) Source reliability
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Operational utility vs. security risk
B) Whether to reassign the team
C) Whether to change the informant’s identity
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Covert collection
B) Multi-source evaluation
C) Surveillance coordination
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Hypothetical assumption
C) Immediate confrontation
D) Source cross-validation
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