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CPCTES - Quiz
Contributed by: Dinglasa
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To regulate the process of criminal justice
B) To punish witnesses
C) To collect taxes
D) To create laws
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Evidence
B) Complaint
C) Pleading
D) Verdict
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A decision of the court
B) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
C) A police report only
D) A lawyer’s opinion
  • 4. An information is:
A) A confession
B) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
C) A witness statement only
D) A newspaper report
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Prosecution
B) Judge
C) Witness
D) Accused
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of wealth
B) Presumption of liability
C) Presumption of guilt
D) Presumption of innocence
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Preliminary Investigation
B) Trial
C) Sentencing
D) Appeal
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Witness opinion only
B) Strong suspicion supported by facts
C) Mere rumor
D) Absolute certainty
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Testimony
B) Fingerprint
C) Contract
D) Knife
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Oral statement made under oath
B) Written confession only
C) Physical object
D) Photograph
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Opinion evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Res Gestae Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
B) Always true
C) Always admissible
D) Required in court
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Judge only
B) Opposing counsel
C) Jury
D) Witness himself
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Direct examination
B) Recall
C) Cross-examination
D) Appeal
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Direct proof of fact
B) Fake evidence
C) Evidence requiring inference
D) Documentary proof only
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) Through inference
B) By opinion alone
C) By rumor
D) Immediately and directly
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Sheriff
B) Prosecutor
C) Bailiff
D) Clerk of Court
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Arraignment
B) Appeal
C) Trial
D) Promulgation
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Denial of charge
B) Refusal to testify
C) Request for dismissal
D) Admission of charge
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Admission of guilt
B) Denial of the accusation
C) Waiver of trial
D) Acceptance of punishment
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to vote
B) Right to property
C) Right to remain silent
D) Right to travel
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Filing a complaint
B) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
C) Court conviction
D) Payment of fine
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Police officer
B) Witness
C) Prosecutor
D) Judge
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Police blotter
B) Gun used in crime
C) Affidavit
D) Testimony
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Lengthy
B) Popular
C) Admissible
D) Expensive
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Illegal evidence
B) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
C) Evidence unrelated to issue
D) Evidence from newspaper only
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Legally admissible in court
B) Publicly known
C) Very expensive
D) Witness-approved
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Appeal
B) Redirect examination
C) Recall examination
D) Cross-examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Attack witness credibility only
B) End the case
C) Change testimony entirely
D) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Secondary evidence
B) Rumor
C) Original document
D) Oral testimony
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Original exists and available
B) Judge prefers it
C) Witness refuses to testify
D) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Witness testimony
B) Police investigation
C) Newspaper publication
D) Court recognizing facts without evidence
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Financial status
B) Believability or trustworthiness
C) Occupation only
D) Age only
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Rumor
C) Direct testimony
D) Speculation
  • 36. Motive is:
A) The act itself
B) Court order
C) Witness statement
D) Reason that induces a person to act
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Lack of motive
B) Mistaken identity only
C) Presence at another place during crime
D) Self-defense
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Mere suspicion
B) Public opinion
C) Beyond reasonable doubt
D) Probable cause
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Arrest of accused
B) Release because guilt not proven
C) Filing of case
D) Conviction of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Dismissal of case
B) Withdrawal of complaint
C) Finding the accused guilty
D) New trial
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to property
B) Right to travel
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to privacy
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Police investigation
B) Final punishment
C) Court decision
D) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Court transcript
B) Property or surety bond
C) Police report only
D) Testimony only
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Searching and seizing specific property
B) Convicting accused
C) Collecting taxes
D) Filing complaint
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Prosecutor
B) Judge
C) Witness
D) Police officer
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Constitutional rights
B) Tax laws
C) School policies
D) Traffic rules
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Excluded evidence
B) Best evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Dead Man Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Witness affidavit
B) Court records
C) Body of the accused only
D) Fact that a crime has been committed
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Affidavit
B) Summons
C) Invoice
D) Receipt
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Criminal conviction
B) Civil cases
C) Appeal only
D) Sentencing
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Prosecutor
B) Witness
C) Clerk
D) Sheriff
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
B) Dismiss case
C) Arrest immediately
D) Convict accused
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Witness appearance only
B) Payment of fine
C) Arrest of accused
D) Production of documents or objects
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Payment of damages
B) Witness testimony
C) Filing of complaint
D) Delivery of property
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Object evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Personal opinion alone
B) Evidence presented and applicable law
C) Public pressure
D) Media reports
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Complaint filing
B) Trial
C) Investigation
D) Arrest
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Punish witness
B) Collect taxes
C) Determine guilt or innocence
D) Write police report
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Probable cause
B) Double jeopardy
C) Due process
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Being tried twice for the same offense
B) Paying bail twice
C) Multiple arrests for different crimes
D) Giving testimony twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Fair and lawful procedure
B) Immediate punishment without hearing
C) Public opinion decides the case
D) Police decide guilt
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Affidavit
B) Verdict
C) Motion to Quash
D) Warrant
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
B) Witness disappears
C) Accused admits guilt
D) Trial has not started
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Witness
B) Defense
C) Prosecution
D) Judge
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) After prosecution rests its case
B) Before complaint filing
C) Before arraignment
D) During investigation only
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Judgment
B) Motion for Continuance
C) Motion to Quash
D) Motion to Dismiss
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Refuses oath only
B) Supports both parties
C) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
D) Is under 18 years old
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Written contracts
B) Crime scene objects
C) Financial records
D) Proof of moral traits or reputation
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Friendship with accused
B) Specialized knowledge and skill
C) Guesswork
D) Rumor
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Hostile witness
B) Character witness
C) Ordinary witness
D) Expert witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Receipt
B) Search warrant
C) Police badge
D) Transcript of stenographic notes
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Remaining silent
B) Filing appeal
C) Posting bail
D) Giving false testimony under oath
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Conviction
B) Arraignment
C) Dismissal
D) Sentencing
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Trial begins
B) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
C) Complaint is filed
D) Bail is posted
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) File police blotter
B) Arrest accused again
C) Reinvestigate crime scene only
D) Request review of lower court decision
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Bailiff
B) Sheriff
C) Prosecutor
D) Clerk of Court
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Written sworn testimony of witness
B) Arrest order
C) Court decision
D) Oral testimony only
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Rule of lenity
B) Judicial notice
C) Estoppel
D) Liberal construction
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Decision
B) Complaint
C) Subpoena
D) Affidavit
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Witness location
B) Court furniture
C) Place where the case is tried
D) Type of penalty
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to information
D) Right to property
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Res Gestae
B) Opinion evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Hearsay
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Used by witnesses only
B) Allowed on direct examination
C) Required during trial
D) Not allowed on direct examination
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Narrative question
B) Compound question
C) Hypothetical question
D) Leading question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Compound
B) Objection: Leading
C) Objection: Irrelevant
D) Objection: Argumentative
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Corpus Delicti
B) Judicial Admission
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Double Jeopardy
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Repeating testimony
B) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
C) Posting bail
D) Filing complaint
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Child witness
B) Expert witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Character witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Privileged Communication Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Public information
B) Privileged and confidential
C) Illegal evidence
D) Hearsay only
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Promulgation
B) Arraignment
C) Examination
D) Investigation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Injunction
B) Certiorari
C) Habeas Corpus
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Primary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Judicial notice
B) Rule of lenity
C) Corpus delicti
D) Presumption of innocence
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Subpoena
B) Summons
C) Warrant of arrest
D) Search warrant
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Investigation
B) Redirect examination
C) Sentencing
D) Arraignment
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Venue
B) Jurisdiction
C) Probable cause
D) Promulgation
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Delay cases
B) Avoid trials
C) Protect rights and ensure justice
D) Increase penalties only
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