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CDI 1 MCQs - Quiz
Contributed by: Torejas
  • 1. What is the primary goal of criminal investigation?
A) To close the case quickly
B) To satisfy the victim's family
C) To determine the truth and identify the guilty
D) To punish the offender immediately
  • 2. Which is NOT one of the three-fold aims of criminal investigation?
A) Recover damages for the victim
B) Provide evidence to support conviction
C) Identify the perpetrator
D) Locate and apprehend the perpetrator
  • 3. The three basic tools of criminal investigation are:
A) People, money, technology
B) Patrol, surveillance, entrapment
C) Information, Interview, Instrumentation
D) Police, prosecutor, court
  • 4. Information as an investigative tool refers to:
A) Secret documents only
B) Confessions obtained under pressure
C) Data gathered from witnesses only
D) Knowledge derived from persons, records, and public sources
  • 5. Interview differs from interrogation in that interview is:
A) Done to suspects only
B) Questioning of persons who may or may not be involved, done in friendly atmosphere
C) Always recorded secretly
D) Conducted without counsel
  • 6. Interrogation is conducted primarily to:
A) Obtain admission or confession from a suspect
B) Get the person to restate what they know
C) Calm the witness
D) Verify alibi's
  • 7. Instrumentation in investigation means:
A) Using authority to gather facts
B) Application of sciences and technical methods to detect crime
C) Relying on intuition
D) Buying expensive equipment
  • 8. Who among the following is the person who first arrives at the crime scene?
A) Case investigator
B) Prosecutor
C) First responder
D) Crime laboratory technician
  • 9. The very first action of the first responder at a crime scene:
A) Take photographs
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Collect evidence
D) Interview witnesses
  • 10. Chain of custody refers to:
A) Unbroken documentary record of everyone who handled evidence
B) The police officer guarding the suspect
C) The prison transfer form
D) The warrant used to seize items
  • 11. If a suspect is caught in the act of committing a crime, the arrest is:
A) Can only be done by a judge
B) Illegal
C) Requires court approval first
D) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
  • 12. A person who, without being a witness, supplies information of value to investigators on a confidential basis:
A) Victim
B) Informant
C) Suspect
D) Accomplice
  • 13. The intelligence cycle in correct sequence:
A) Collection → Planning → Processing → Dissemination
B) Processing → Planning → Dissemination → Collection
C) Dissemination → Collection → Planning → Processing
D) Planning → Collection → Processing → Dissemination
  • 14. What type of intelligence deals with personalities, their activities and associations?
A) Counter-intelligence
B) Estimate
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Line / Tactical intelligence
  • 15. Intelligence intended for long-term planning and policy making:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Tactical intelligence
D) Current intelligence
  • 16. Covert observation of a person, place, or thing to obtain information:
A) Raid
B) Surveillance
C) Interoggation
D) Search
  • 17. Surveillance conducted on foot:
A) Technical surveillance
B) Air surveillance
C) Stationary surveillance
D) Mobile /foot surveillance
  • 18. When the observer takes a fixed position to watch a target:
A) Shadowing
B) Casing
C) Tailing
D) Stationary / fixed surveillance
  • 19. A secret investigation conducted before launching the actual case inquiry to verify facts:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Preparatory investigation / casing
C) Follow-up investigation
D) Re-investigation
  • 20. Evidence that proves a fact directly without need of inference:
A) Circumtancial evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Ducomentary evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 21. Evidence that implies a fact from which the main fact may be inferred:
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Real evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 22. The body of the crime; the fact that a crime has actually been committed:
A) Prima facie
B) Modus operandi
C) Res gestae
D) Corpus delicti
  • 23. Method of operation; characteristic way a criminal commits crimes:
A) Modus operandi
B) Motive
C) Corpus delicti
D) Alibi
  • 24. Reason that impels a person to commit a crime:
A) Ability
B) Opportunity
C) Motive
D) Intent
  • 25. A defense that the accused was somewhere else when the crime happened:
A) Duress
B) Self-defense
C) Alibi
D) Entrapment
  • 26. A statement made by a suspect acknowledging guilt:
A) Confession
B) Affidavit
C) Deposition
D) Admission
  • 27. An acknowledgement of a fact or circumstance but not necessarily of guilt ?
A) Confession
B) Testimony
C) Admission
D) Declaration
  • 28. Who among informants is motivated by revenge against the target?
A) Vengeful
B) Grudge
C) Mercenaries
D) Fearful
  • 29. Informant who gives information in exchange for money or reward?
A) Mercentile
B) Mercenary
C) Repentant
D) Disinterested
  • 30. The most reliable type of informant is usually?
A) Disinterested / Neutral
B) Criminal participant
C) Mercenary
D) Grudge-bearing
  • 31. Under RA 4200, unauthorized wiretapping is:
A) Allowed if public safety is involved
B) A criminal offense
C) Allowed if police say so
D) Permitted without warrant in all cases
  • 32. A written order issued by a judge directing a peace officer to arrest a person
A) Subpoena
B) Summon
C) Warrant of arrest
D) Search warrant
  • 33. A search warrant is valid for:
A) 30 days from date of issuance
B) 10 days from date of issuance
C) Indefinite
D) 15 days from date of issuance
  • 34. A search warrant must be issued upon probable cause determined personally by
A) Judge
B) President
C) Prosecutor
D) Police chief
  • 35. Things to be seized under a search warrant must be particularly described in the:
A) Warrant itself
B) News report
C) Affidavit only
D) Police blotter
  • 36. Warrantless search incidental to a lawful arrest is valid if made:
A) At the time of arrest and within the immediate area of control
B) Any time after arrest
C) Before filling of complaint
D) 1 week after arrest
  • 37. Objects in plain view of an officer who has a right to be in the place can be seized under:
A) Consent search
B) Exigent circumstances
C) Plain view doctrine
D) None of these
  • 38. A search conducted with the voluntary permission of the person concerned:
A) Consent search; must be voluntary and intelligent
B) Always illegal
C) Valid only if witnessed
D) Required written court order
  • 39. Custodial investigation begins when:
A) . The officer first sees the suspect
B) The complaint is filed
C) The investigation focuses on a specific person who is taken into custody
D) The warrant is issued
  • 40. During custodial investigation, the suspect must be informed of the right to:
A) Be informed of these rights in a language understood
B) All of the above
C) Remain silent
D) Have competent and independent counsel
  • 41. Any extrajudicial confession made without the assistance of counsel is:
A) Admissible if signed
B) Admissible in minor offenses only
C) Null and void and cannot be used in court
D) Admissible if true
  • 42. The rule that evidence obtained illegally cannot be used in court:
A) Miranda rules
B) Exclusionary rule / Fruit of the poisonous tree
C) Best evidence rules
D) Hearsay rules
  • 43. Preliminary investigation is conducted to determine:
A) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Suspicion
C) Public opinion
D) Probable cause
  • 44. Who conducts preliminary investigation?
A) Mayor
B) Judge
C) Prosecutor
D) Police investigator
  • 45. Inquest proceeding applies when a person is lawfully arrested without warrant and:
A) There are no witnesses
B) The suspect waives rights
C) The arrest is valid and the offense requires preliminary investigation
D) The offense is bailable
  • 46. The period to file inquest for offenses punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months and 1 day to 6 years:
A) 18 hours
B) 15 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 24 hours
  • 47. The police blotter is a record of:
A) Secret operation
B) Confidential informants
C) Court decision
D) Daily events and reports at the station
  • 48. The document prepared by the investigator containing facts of the case:
A) Editorial
B) Policy paper
C) News release
D) Investigative report
  • 49. The sketch drawn at the crime scene showing measurements and distances:
A) Rough sketch
B) Perspective sketch
C) Artistic sketch
D) Finished sketch
  • 50. Photographs taken at the crime scene should be done in sequence:
A) General → medium → close-up
B) Close-up → medium → general
C) Medium → general → close-up
D) No fix order
  • 51. What is the minimum number of photographs recommended for complete scene documentation?**
A) Overlapping coverage from all angles
B) Only one overview
C) 4
D) 2
  • 52. The "walk-through" of the crime scene after photography:
A) Final survey
B) Release
C) Reconstruction
D) Initial survey / primary search
  • 53. Evidence should be marked:
A) At the scene immediately upon collection
B) Before the trial
C) After reaching the laboratory
D) When the prosecutor say so
  • 54. When collecting bloodstained material, it should be:
A) Packed wet in plastic immediately
B) Air-dried properly then packaged to prevent contamination
C) Sprayed with water
D) Keep under sunlight
  • 55. Fingerprints found at the scene are what type of evidence?
A) Hearsay
B) Testimonial
C) Real / physical evidence
D) Documentary
  • 56. Modus operandi files are useful to:
A) Record police salary
B) Identify victims
C) Justify overtime
D) Link crimes committed by the same person
  • 57. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good investigator?
A) Prejudgment
B) Open-mindedness
C) Impartiality
D) Perseverance
  • 58. The best time to interview a witness is:
A) Whenever convenient
B) One month later
C) As soon as possible after the event
D) After the trial start
  • 59. Leading questions may be allowed during:
A) Initial interview of friendly witness
B) Cross examination
C) Direct examination
D) Never
  • 60. A witness who cannot recall details may be aided with:
A) Pressure to remember
B) Past recollection recorded / refreshing memory
C) Leading questions always
D) Suggestion
  • 61. In interrogation, the investigator should start from:
A) General matters then narrow to specific
B) Threatening arrest
C) Accusing immediately
D) . The most serious charge first
  • 62. If a suspect confesses, the next step is:
A) Destroy other evidence
B) Release them
C) Reduce to writing with counsel assistance
D) Publicize it
  • 63. Entrapment is a means of:
A) Catching a criminal in the execution of their plan; lawful
B) Manufacturing Evidence
C) Punishing innocent persons
D) Inducing a person to commit a crime
  • 64. Instigation differs from entrapment because instigation:
A) Induces an innocent person to commit a crime; accused is acquitted
B) Required no evidence
C) Is lawful
D) Is the same as entrapment
  • 65. Undercover agent means:
A) A jail warden
B) A judge
C) An officer openly in uniform
D) An operative assigned to act under assumed identity
  • 66. The purpose of casing a place is to:
A) Arrest immediately
B) Destroy evidence
C) Observe layout, security, habits, without arousing suspicion
D) Announce police presence
  • 67. Stationary surveillance is also known as:
A) Shadowing
B) Fixed / stake-out
C) Tailing
D) Loitering
  • 68. When the target is aware of being followed and evades, this is:
A) Good practice
B) Surveillance compromised / blown
C) Expected
D) Normal
  • 69. A "pouch" or drop system in intelligence refers to:
A) Leaving and picking up information at prearranged place
B) Evidence bag
C) Mail delivery
D) Money bag
  • 70. A reliable source is one who:
A) Is paid the most
B) Has provided accurate information in the past
C) Always tells what you want to hear
D) Is related to the suspect
  • 71. Intelligence information evaluation uses four factors:
A) Rank, experience, training, courage
B) Speed, secrecy, cost, risk
C) Reliability of source, accuracy of info, relevance, timeliness
D) Time, place, person, thing
  • 72. Confidentiality in intelligence means:
A) Telling only friends
B) Restricting access to those who need to know
C) Never writing anything down
D) Publishing on social media
  • 73. The "need-to-know" principle means:
A) Only the public is informed
B) Information given only to those whose duty requires it
C) Everyone gets all information
D) No one gets information
  • 74. Preliminary investigation in the Philippines is governed by:
A) RPC only
B) Rules of Court, Rule 112
C) Police manual only
D) Local ordinances
  • 75. A complaint under Rule 110 is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by:
A) Offended party
B) Other public officer charged with enforcement
C) All of the above
D) Any peace officers
  • 76. A person can be charged even if the victim does not file if:
A) The police want to
B) The media demands it
C) Any of these
D) The crime is against public interest
  • 77. Venue of criminal action is where:
A) The victims lives
B) The court is most convenient
C) The prosecutor decides
D) The offense was committed or any of its essential ingredients occurred
  • 78. Double jeopardy means:
A) Being tried twice for the same offense after acquittal or conviction
B) Being arrested twice
C) Having two lawyers
D) Being questioned twice
  • 79. The accused is presumed:
A) Guilty if charged
B) Innocent if wealthy
C) Innocent until proven guilty
D) Guilty until proven otherwise
  • 80. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is required to establish:
A) Probable cause
B) Filling of complaint
C) Conviction
D) Suspicion
  • 81. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction if:
A) The victim say so
B) The suspect cannot explain
C) The facts proved are consistent with guilt and inconsistent with innocence
D) It is the only evidence
  • 82. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Admissible if urgent
C) Admissible if written
D) Admissible
  • 83. Dying declaration is an exception to:
A) Miranda rule
B) Chain of custody
C) Best evidence rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 84. For a dying declaration to be valid, the declarant must be:
A) Conscious of impending death
B) Under medication
C) Related to the victim
D) Over 21 years old
  • 85. Res gestae refers to statements:
A) Spontaneously made during startling occurrence
B) Taken from books
C) Prepared in advance
D) Made long after the event
  • 86. The crime scene should be photographed:
A) Only if media is present
B) Before anyone enters and disturbs it
C) After cleaning
D) . After evidence is collected
  • 87. When evidence is transferred from one handler to another, this must be recorded in:
A) General diary
B) Personal notebook
C) Social media post
D) Chain of custudy form
  • 88. If evidence is lost or contaminated:
A) Investigator is jailed immediately
B) Case is automatically dismissed
C) Admissibility may be affected; integrity challenged
D) Suspect is acquitted automatically
  • 89. The release of the crime scene is done when:
A) Media leaves
B) Public gets impatient
C) All processing is completed and approved
D) Suspect is caught
  • 90. Follow-up investigation begins:
A) Before the crime is reported
B) After preliminary investigation and continues until case is solved or closed
C) When ordered by media
D) Only after conviction
  • 91. During follow-up, alibis should be:
A) Verified and checked for credibility
B) Kept secret
C) Accepted immediately
D) Ignored
  • 92. The investigator's court appearance requires:
A) Bringing witnesses secretly
B) Wearing casual clothes
C) Familiarity with case facts, documents, and proper decorum
D) Arguing with the defense
  • 93. When testifying, the witness should:
A) Answer clearly and truthfully only what is known
B) Guess if unsure
C) Look only at the prosecutor
D) Give extra information voluntarily
  • 94. A case may be closed when:
A) Suspect is identified and evidence sufficient for filing
B) Any of the above as per procedure
C) No leads despite all efforts
D) Suspect is dead
  • 95. Cold case refers to:
A) An unsolved case with exhausted leads
B) Well-documented case
C) Minor offense
D) A crime committed in winter
  • 96. Re-opening a closed case is proper when:
A) Public demands it
B) Media reports it
C) New and substantial evidence is discovered
D) Investigator is bored
  • 97. Republic Act 11131 is known as:
A) Police act
B) Criminology Profession Act of 2018
C) Security agency regulation law
D) Anti-crime law
  • 98. CHED Memorandum Order No. 5 Series of 2018 covers:
A) Fire code
B) BS Criminology curriculum
C) Jail management
D) Police training
  • 99. The licensure exam for Criminologists includes CDI subjects with a weight of:
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 20%
D) 10%
  • 100. The ultimate goal of the criminal justice system is:
A) Speedy disposal of cases
B) Punishment
C) Justice through due process and truth
D) Conviction
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