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COEDAD FINAL - Quiz
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
C) Fixed timestep
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Calculating from frequency response
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Measuring peak voltage only
D) Reading the voltage value at t=0
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Build physical electronic circuits
C) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
D) Program microcontrollers
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Bode plot
B) Nyquist plot
C) Smith chart
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R+C
B) R-C
C) RxC
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 100Ω
B) 220Ω
C) 47Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Monte Carlo
B) DC sweep
C) Fourier
D) Transient
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 2ms
B) 5ms
C) 10ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 15ΚΩ
C) 5ΚΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 500Hz
B) 2kHz
C) 10kHz
D) 1kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 2MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM741
B) LM358
C) LT1001
D) TL082
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >20dB
B) >60dB
C) >40dB
D) >80dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Input power / Output power × 100%
C) Current out / Current in
D) Output power / Input power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 10kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Single input signal only
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Different signals on each input
D) Grounded input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) External clock
B) RC time constant
C) Power supply frequency
D) LC resonance
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
B) Instantaneous voltage
C) RMS calculation
D) Average voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1Hz
B) 100Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 10Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
C) Transistors with 5% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) Voltage follower
C) Linear regulation
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Input current
B) Switching noise
C) Output voltage settling time
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-12
B) gmin = 1e-9
C) gmin = 1e-7
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Capacitive coupling
C) Parallel resistor
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Visual inspection
B) Systematic node voltage checking
C) Random probing
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Crystal oscillator
B) Colpitts oscillator
C) Hartley oscillator
D) Wien bridge oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 47kQ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 100ΚΩ
D) 1ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) Alout/AVout
B) AVout/AVin
C) AVin/AVout
D) AVout/Alload
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Sallen-Key
B) Multiple feedback
C) State variable
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 10
D) 80dB
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Input bias current
B) CMRR
C) Slew rate
D) Gain bandwidth
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Heat measurement
B) Power = V *1
C) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
D) Energy calculation
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) -15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Flyback converter
C) Boost converter
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 24V
B) 9V
C) 12V
D) 15V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) XML format
B) Binary format
C) HTML format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Long-term frequency drift measurement
B) Phase noise
C) Peak amplitude
D) RMS voltage
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) RC phase shift
C) Wien bridge
D) Crystal
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 15
B) 10
C) 2
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Symbol creation with subcircuits
B) Multiple schematics
C) Component arrays
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F4
B) F3
C) F2
D) F1
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +12V only
B) ±12V
C) ±15V
D) +5V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Single diode setup
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Bridge configuration with four diodes
D) Two diodes in series
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 500kHz
B) 250kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 100kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .dc
C) .tran
D) .ac
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 1V
B) 0V
C) 5V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 1000μF
B) 2200μF
C) 100μF
D) 470μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) abstol 1e-12
C) itol = 1e-8
D) reltol = 1e-3
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .print
B) .plot
C) .meas
D) .save
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) SPICE directives with comments
B) Verbal description
C) Separate text file
D) Reference manual
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 10V
B) 15V
C) 5V
D) 12V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 9V
B) 3.3V
C) 6V
D) 5V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Peer review
D) Visual estimation
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 10ns
B) 1ns
C) 1μς
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 100μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 47μΗ
D) 220μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 3V pulse
C) 2V square wave
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Cutoff frequency at OdB
D) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .tran fft
B) .fft V(out)
C) .four
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Variable capacitor
B) Zener diode
C) AGC circuit with thermistor
D) Fixed resistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Quarter power point
B) Maximum amplitude point
C) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
D) Zero crossing point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -90 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
B) Random numbers
C) Default names
D) Sequential only
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Random storage
B) Mixed files
C) Separate folders for each analysis type
D) Single directory
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Numeric only
B) Date_Time
C) Random string
D) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 100kHz
B) 500kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 10MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 120V AC
B) 5V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Complete schematic file
B) Video demonstration of circuit operation
C) Comparison with theoretical calculations
D) Simulation results
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Power cycling
B) Circuit restart
C) Error log analysis and stepping
D) Component replacement
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .save rms
B) .measure average
C) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
D) .print rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) 20 dB/decade
B) -60 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Monte Carlo analysis
B) AC analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Over-current protection
C) Soft-start circuit
D) Under-voltage lockout
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >80dB
B) >60dB
C) >40dB
D) >100dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) .ic command with node voltages
C) External sources
D) Startup switches
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Exponential rise to steady state
B) Sinusoidal oscillation
C) Step function
D) Linear increase
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <0.1%
B) <10%
C) <5%
D) <1%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 5th order Elliptic filter
B) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
C) 3rd order Bessel filter
D) 4th order Butterworth filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Peak output voltage
B) Total output / total input
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Average of both inputs
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 120V AC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 240V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) diff(V1,V2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.707
B) 0.25
C) 0.5
D) 0.1
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 50
B) 200
C) 100
D) 75
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Input impedance
B) Transient response
C) Efficiency at different loads
D) Output ripple voltage
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Assumption based
B) Peer feedback
C) Visual inspection
D) Comparison with datasheet specifications
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Copy to clipboard
C) Save as image only
D) Right-click plot, export data as text
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
B) State variable filter
C) Twin-T configuration
D) Multiple feedback topology
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 3A
B) 500mA
C) 1A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Power loss calculation
B) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
C) Current ratio only
D) Voltage ratio only
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Random copies
B) Sequential backup with date stamps
C) Single file override
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Modifying existing parts
B) Using.subckt definition
C) Component wizard
D) Symbol editor only
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Reduce timestep
B) Change solver type
C) Increase maximum iterations
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 2A
B) 500mA
C) 5A
D) 1A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Linear amplitude increase
C) Random amplitude variation
D) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 220μF
B) 100μF
C) 1000μF
D) 47μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Circuit simplification
B) Parameter randomization
C) Progressive component addition
D) Complete rebuild
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <3dB
D) <0.5dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 1KΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 2ΚΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 200kHz
B) 50kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 3.3V peak-to-peak
B) 1V peak-to-peak
C) 10V peak-to-peak
D) 5V peak-to-peak
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