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ECHO 1_AREA2 - Quiz
Contributed by: Magbanua
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
B) Teeth provide genetic information directly
C) Teeth change shape with age
D) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
B) To detect forged fingerprints
C) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
D) To measure ridge density
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
B) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
C) Dental features rarely match across victims
D) It requires no prior dental records
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
B) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
C) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
D) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
B) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
C) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
D) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
B) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
C) It allows automatic destruction of old records
D) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As pattern-indeterminate
B) As an arch pattern
C) As a whorl pattern
D) As a loop pattern
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Tented arch
B) Composite pattern
C) Radial loop
D) Plain whorl
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Ridge count principle
B) Principle of individuality
C) Ridge density standard
D) Principle of permanence
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
B) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
C) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
D) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Universality
B) Divergence
C) Multiplicity
D) Permanence
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
B) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
C) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
D) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Apply magnetic powder
B) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
C) Use iodine fuming before rolling
D) Cut the finger and discard the skin
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Iodine fuming
B) Powder dusting
C) Ninhydrin
D) Silver nitrate
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
B) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
C) Increase pressure to improve contrast
D) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
B) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
C) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
D) Superglue → black powder → ALS
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Adhesive tape
B) Gel lifter
C) Ink transfer
D) Heat transfer sheet
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
B) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
C) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
D) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
B) Immediately declare the print an identification
C) Proceed directly to comparison
D) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
B) Conducting blind and independent verification
C) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
D) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Composition
B) Spectral Quality
C) Exposure Value
D) Light Intensity
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Off-Camera Flash
B) Bounce Flash
C) Direct Flash
D) Rear-Curtain Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Increased shadow definition
B) Minimal textural visibility
C) Soft blending of edges
D) Lower contrast on surfaces
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
B) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
C) Enhances only reflective surfaces
D) Eliminates the need for a tripod
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
B) It avoids lens distortion
C) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
D) It limits the depth of field range
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Increase flash synchronization
B) Ensure realistic color tones
C) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
D) Prevent overexposure
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Reduce ISO to 100
B) Increase ISO to a higher value
C) Narrow the aperture to f/16
D) Use a slower shutter speed
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
B) Background Neutralization
C) Evidence Size Documentation
D) Horizontal Composition Rule
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Wide aperture, auto ISO
B) High ISO, fast shutter
C) Small aperture, low ISO
D) Slow shutter, high ISO
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
B) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
C) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
D) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Light intensity remains constant
B) Scene orientation is established
C) Depth of field is minimized
D) Flash reflection is avoided
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
B) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
C) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
D) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
B) High ISO and wide aperture
C) Narrow aperture with rear flash
D) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
B) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
C) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
D) Wide-angle removes depth of field
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) Image sensor
B) ISO control
C) Memory card slot
D) Lens focusing ring
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Telephoto lens
B) Macro lens
C) Standard lens
D) Ultra-wide lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Disable autofocus
B) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
C) Increase shutter speed
D) Lower ISO and widen aperture
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Rotating memory dial
B) Selecting higher ASA film
C) Changing film advance lever
D) Adjusting lens mount
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May remove shadow details entirely
B) May shift color temperature drastically
C) May increase exposure stability
D) May misrepresent the distance between objects
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
B) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
C) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
D) Image sensor malfunctioned
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
B) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
C) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
D) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
B) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
C) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
D) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
B) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
C) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
D) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
B) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
C) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
D) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
B) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
C) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
D) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
B) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
C) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
D) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
B) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
C) High-dose vitamin K therapy
D) Activated charcoal only
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
B) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
C) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
D) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A personal diary
B) A handwritten personal letter
C) A company memo
D) A notarized affidavit
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) Stereomicroscope
B) VSC
C) IR lamp
D) ESDA
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) The presence of signature tremors
B) Pen pressure inconsistencies
C) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
D) Paper fiber uniqueness
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It measures paper thickness with high precision
B) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
C) It detects the weight of ink residue
D) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
B) The document contains natural handwriting variation
C) Ink from different batches or pens was used
D) The paper is of inferior quality
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Forgery through tracing
B) Freehand imitation
C) Natural variation
D) Disguised signature
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) Ink used was incompatible
B) It is an authentic signature
C) The signature may be simulated
D) The writer was in a hurry
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Class characteristics
B) Line quality analysis
C) Individual characteristics
D) Natural variation
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) The paper is counterfeit
B) The ink was exposed to moisture
C) The lighting technique was incorrect
D) Alteration likely occurred
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Signature stamp or machine signature
B) Typewriter output
C) Simulation
D) Freehand forgery
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) Impairment or loss of motor control
B) A natural signature variation
C) Possible disguise attempt
D) Habitual writing behavior
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
B) To observe fatigue in writing
C) To assess quality of ink
D) To determine paper density
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) A mechanical copying method was used
B) The writer used two pens intentionally
C) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
D) The writing is genuine
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The signature is authentic with natural variation
B) The signature is simulated
C) The ink has degraded over time
D) The writer was under stress
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) The note is genuine but old
B) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
C) The UV lamp is defective
D) The security thread has naturally faded
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) The ID is authentic but worn out
B) The document was damaged by moisture
C) Microprinting is naturally variable
D) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Skin conductance
B) Pupil dilation
C) Eye color
D) Blood pressure
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Subject’s favorite color
B) Examiner skill and experience
C) Ambient room temperature only
D) Length of examination only
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To directly detect lies about the incident
B) To confuse the subject and induce errors
C) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
D) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) It improves the detection of deception automatically
B) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
C) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
D) It has no measurable effect
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) Control phase
B) Post-test phase
C) In-test phase
D) Pre-test phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Thermometer
B) Galvanometer
C) Pneumograph
D) Cardiograph
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Ignore both responses
B) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
C) Consider the relevant question deceptive
D) Restart the entire test
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Computer software
B) Cardio sensor
C) Galvanometer
D) Pneumograph
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To confuse the subject
B) To directly confirm deception
C) To establish baseline physiological responses
D) To test memory retention
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) Only using computer software
B) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
C) Only by visual inspection
D) By ignoring baseline readings
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Declare deception immediately
B) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
C) Ignore inconsistencies
D) Ask more irrelevant questions
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Conclude deception automatically
B) Increase the number of relevant questions
C) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
D) Ignore the responses and continue
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject is likely deceptive
B) Examiner should add more control questions
C) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
D) Subject is definitely truthful
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
B) Predict subject’s future behavior
C) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
D) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Ballistic chronograph
B) Caliper
C) Comparison microscope
D) Rifling gauge
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It prevents contamination of evidence
B) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
C) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
D) It identifies the firearm used
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
B) Photographing the suspect
C) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
D) Testing the firearm immediately
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
B) To determine the shooter’s intent
C) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
D) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To identify firearm serial numbers
B) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
C) To compare rifling impressions
D) To document cartridge case markings
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Disassembling the firearm in open court
B) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
C) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
D) Testing bullets in front of the jury
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Class characteristics
B) Individual characteristics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Rifle
B) Machine gun
C) Handgun
D) Shotgun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Firing pin
B) Cartridge case
C) Bullet
D) Primer
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) Internal ballistics
B) External ballistics
C) Forensic ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Class characteristics
B) Ammunition design
C) Internal ballistics
D) Individual characteristics
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) External ballistics
B) Class characteristics
C) Terminal ballistics
D) Individual characteristics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) External ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Forensic ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) Internal ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) External ballistics
D) Firearm classification
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Bullet
B) Gunpowder
C) Primer
D) Cartridge case
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Determining class characteristics
B) Evaluating firearm classification
C) Assessing external ballistics
D) Establishing individual characteristics
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Test fire before collection
B) Keep it loaded while packaging
C) Hand it to anyone nearby
D) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
B) To measure bullet velocity accurately
C) To assess terminal ballistics
D) To determine firearm make and model
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To test them before court
B) To analyze gunpowder separately
C) To load them for demonstration
D) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Cleaning them immediately
B) Keeping them in open air
C) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
D) Polishing them for clarity
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
B) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
C) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
D) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
B) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
C) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
D) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
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