ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
Risk management - Quiz
Contributed by: Morrison
  • 1. Which organization identifies the principles for risk management mentioned in the text?
A) World Health Organization
B) Benoit Mandelbrot Foundation
C) ISO 31000 Committee on Standards
D) International Organization for Standardization
  • 2. What is the ISO principle regarding resource expenditure in risk management?
A) Expenditures should focus strictly on eliminating 100 percent of all identified threats.
B) Mitigation costs are irrelevant as long as the risk is completely removed.
C) Resources expended must equal the total value of the assets being protected.
D) Resources expended to mitigate risk should be less than the consequence of inaction.
  • 3. According to ISO principles, risk management should be what in relation to organizational processes?
A) A temporary trial phase
B) An optional external review
C) A completely separate department
D) An integral part
  • 4. What should risk management explicitly address according to the ISO principles?
A) Uncertainty and assumptions
B) Employee satisfaction and retention
C) Financial profits and shareholder dividends
D) Marketing strategies and competitor pricing
  • 5. Which information should be used when following the ISO principles for risk management?
A) The best available information
B) Historical data older than ten years
C) Exclusively internal company records
D) Information provided solely by external consultants
  • 6. How should risk management adapt to changes, based on the ISO principles?
A) Be dynamic, iterative and responsive to change
B) Change only during annual corporate restructuring
C) Alter its core goals every single week
D) Remain fixed and unchangeable once established
  • 7. Who distinguished between 'mild' and 'wild' risk?
A) Standard ISO 31000 authors
B) An anonymous group of actuaries
C) Benoit Mandelbrot
D) ISO standards committee
  • 8. What type of probability distribution does mild risk follow?
A) Normal or near-normal probability distributions
B) Fat-tailed distributions
C) Infinite variance distributions
D) Pareto or power-law distributions
  • 9. Why is mild risk relatively predictable?
A) It always results in zero financial loss.
B) It is subject to regression to the mean and the law of large numbers.
C) It never changes over time.
D) It is managed entirely by government regulators.
  • 10. What type of probability distribution does wild risk follow?
A) Strictly uniform distributions
B) Bell-curve distributions with finite variance
C) Fat-tailed distributions, e.g., Pareto or power-law distributions
D) Normal or near-normal distributions
  • 11. Why is wild risk difficult or impossible to predict?
A) It only occurs in completely unregulated markets.
B) It follows standard normal probability curves.
C) It is subject to regression to the tail, rendering the law of large numbers ineffective.
D) It has a predictable mean that never shifts.
  • 12. What is a common error in risk assessment and management regarding mild and wild risk?
A) To ignore normal distributions entirely in favor of Pareto distributions
B) To treat mild risk as if it could destroy the entire organization
C) To underestimate the wildness of risk, assuming it to be mild when it is wild
D) To use power-law distributions for simple everyday events
  • 13. Which standard outlines the risk management process consisting of several steps?
A) ISO 31000
B) ISO 9001
C) ISO 27001
D) ISO 14001
  • 14. What is the first step in the risk management process according to ISO 31000?
A) Source analysis
B) Problem analysis
C) Establishing the context
D) Risk identification
  • 15. Establishing the context involves observing what?
A) Only the internal financial records
B) The personal lives of all employees
C) Competitor stock prices exclusively
D) The environment of the organization
  • 16. When establishing the context, what needs to be defined regarding stakeholders?
A) Their personal credit scores
B) Their home addresses and phone numbers
C) Their voting records in national elections
D) Their identity and objectives
  • 17. After establishing the context, what is the next step in the risk management process?
A) Dismiss all project stakeholders
B) Identify potential risks
C) Execute immediate mitigation strategies
D) Purchase insurance policies
  • 18. What do risks concern when they are triggered?
A) Mandatory structural reorganizations
B) Guaranteed legal penalties
C) Events that cause problems or benefits
D) Only catastrophic financial failures
  • 19. Where may risk sources be located relative to the system being targeted?
A) Internal or external to the system
B) Strictly internal to the system
C) Exclusively external to the organization
D) Only within legislative bodies
  • 20. Why does the text suggest using mitigation instead of management for risk?
A) Mitigation sounds more professional in business reports.
B) Risk deals with factors of decision-making that cannot be managed.
C) Management implies that risks can be completely eliminated.
D) Management is a legally trademarked term.
  • 21. What are some examples of risk sources provided in the text?
A) Accounting software errors, server crashes, and power outages
B) Government regulations, tax policies, and trade tariffs
C) Stakeholders of a project, employees of a company, or the weather over an airport
D) Stock market crashes, inflation rates, and global pandemics
  • 22. What are risks related to in problem analysis?
A) Planned organizational changes
B) Identified threats
C) Guaranteed positive outcomes
D) Unidentified random occurrences
  • 23. With which entities do threats most importantly exist according to problem analysis?
A) Suppliers, distributors, and logistics partners
B) Consultants, auditors, and external contractors
C) Shareholders, customers, and legislative bodies such as the government
D) Competitors, media outlets, and general publics
  • 24. What risk event is illustrated by stakeholders withdrawing during a project?
A) It guarantees an immediate increase in profits
B) It forces the government to take over operations
C) It will automatically improve employee morale
D) It may endanger funding of the project
  • 25. What risk event is illustrated by confidential information being handled improperly?
A) It becomes public property automatically
B) It will be safely encrypted by external hackers
C) It may be stolen by employees even within a closed network
D) It loses all value to competitors
  • 26. What risk event is illustrated by lightning striking an aircraft during takeoff?
A) It improves the navigational equipment
B) It recharges the aircraft's emergency batteries
C) It may make all people on board immediate casualties
D) It causes a minor delay in flight schedules
  • 27. What factors may the chosen method of identifying risks depend on?
A) Company size, office location, and CEO preference
B) Culture, industry practice, and compliance
C) Stock exchange listings and marketing budgets
D) Daily weather conditions and employee turnover
  • 28. In objectives-based risk identification, what is identified as a risk?
A) Any decision made by executive management
B) Any event that increases the speed of daily operations
C) Any change in government tax laws
D) Any event that may prevent an objective from being achieved
  • 29. In scenario-based risk identification, what is created?
A) Employee performance reviews
B) Legal compliance contracts
C) Financial balance sheets
D) Different scenarios
  • 30. What is the taxonomy in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) A classification of software bugs
B) A breakdown of possible risk sources
C) A hierarchical list of corporate job titles
D) A database of historical financial losses
  • 31. How are risks revealed in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) Through answers to a questionnaire compiled from the taxonomy and best practices
B) By reviewing quarterly tax filings
C) Through random audits conducted by external consultants
D) By analyzing daily social media mentions
  • 32. What is common-risk checking?
A) Testing software code for basic syntax errors
B) Asking employees to guess what might go wrong each morning
C) Comparing company expenses with industry averages
D) Checking available lists of known risks for application to a particular situation
  • 33. What does risk charting combine?
A) Tax rates, legal regulations, and government policies
B) Profit margins, employee counts, and office sizes
C) Resources at risk, threats, modifying factors, and consequences
D) Marketing strategies, customer feedback, and sales data
  • 34. What can be created by listing resources, threats, modifying factors, and consequences in a matrix?
A) An automated employee payroll system
B) A binding legal contract for insurance
C) A public relations crisis management plan
D) A variety of approaches for risk identification
  • 35. According to the ISO principles, should risk management be capable of continual improvement?
A) Only during periods of severe financial loss
B) Only when mandated by external regulatory bodies
C) Yes, it should be capable of continual improvement and enhancement
D) No, it should remain standardized and never be modified
  • 36. Which human element must be taken into account according to ISO principles?
A) Personal political beliefs
B) Union membership numbers
C) Human factors
D) Employee salary expectations
  • 37. How should the risk management process be described regarding transparency?
A) Confidential to board members
B) Hidden from lower-level employees
C) Transparent and inclusive
D) Secretive and executive-only
  • 38. What statistical law becomes invalid or ineffective for wild risk?
A) Murphy's law
B) Moore's law
C) The law of supply and demand
D) The law of large numbers
  • 39. What kind of mean or variance does wild risk exhibit?
A) Fixed mean with normal distribution
B) Constant and predictable variance
C) Zero mean and zero variance
D) Infinite mean or variance
  • 40. What term describes the phenomenon where wild risk is subject to movement toward the extreme tails?
A) Standard deviation shift
B) Regression to the tail
C) Central limit theorem
D) Regression to the mean
  • 41. When did opportunities first appear in academic research or management books?
A) 1980s
B) 2000s
C) 1970s
D) 1990s
  • 42. Did the first PMBoK Project Management Body of Knowledge draft of 1987 mention opportunities?
A) Only briefly
B) Implicitly
C) Yes
D) No
  • 43. When were opportunities included in project management literature like PMBoK?
A) Since the 1980s
B) Since the 1990s
C) Since the 1970s
D) Since the 2000s
  • 44. When did opportunities become a significant part of project risk management?
A) 2010s
B) 1980s
C) 2000s
D) 1990s
  • 45. What are positive risks called?
A) Liabilities
B) Vulnerabilities
C) Opportunities
D) Threats
  • 46. In practice, how are risks usually considered?
A) Usually positive
B) Always beneficial
C) Usually negative
D) Always neutral
  • 47. Focusing significantly more on threats than on opportunities can lead to what negative phenomenon?
A) Scope creep
B) Groupthink
C) Analysis paralysis
D) Target fixation
  • 48. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses included as an activity in the Monitor and Control process?
A) 3rd Ed.
B) 1st Ed.
C) 6th Ed.
D) 4th Ed.
  • 49. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses separated as a distinct process?
A) 4th Ed.
B) 6th Ed.
C) 1st Ed.
D) 2nd Ed.
  • 50. What does the Monitor Risks process involve?
A) Numerical analysis of effects
B) Identifying threats
C) Monitoring the implementation
D) Implementing agreed-upon plans
  • 51. Which of the following is a source of risk mentioned in the text?
A) Political instability
B) Consistent decision-making
C) Guaranteed market profits
D) Fixed percentage sizing
  • 52. Which strategy is typically used to manage threats?
A) Ignoring potential consequences
B) Avoiding the threat
C) Maximizing negative effects
D) Increasing the probability of the threat
  • 53. Since approximately when has risk management appeared in scientific and management literature?
A) The 1920s
B) The 1980s
C) The 1900s
D) The 1950s
  • 54. When did risk management become a formal science?
A) The 2000s
B) The 1920s
C) The 1970s
D) The 1950s
  • 55. What does assessing overall risk often prove to be in practice?
A) Simple and straightforward
B) Fully automated
C) Irrelevant
D) Tricky
  • 56. What represents a unique challenge for risk managers?
A) Opportunity cost
B) Market inflation
C) Fixed asset depreciation
D) Employee turnover
  • 57. What does ideal risk management optimize?
A) Resource usage
B) Employee headcount
C) Advertising budgets
D) Office space
  • 58. Evaluating the severity of consequences is often quite difficult for which type of assets?
A) Intangible assets
B) Buildings and vehicles
C) Cash reserves
D) Inventory in warehouses
  • 59. Who proposed a formula for presenting risks in financial terms in 1970 at IBM?
A) Albert Einstein
B) Bill Gates
C) Isaac Newton
D) Robert Courtney Jr.
  • 60. What does the acronym ALE stand for in the context of the Courtney formula?
A) Actual loss evaluation
B) Annualized loss expectancy
C) Assessed liability estimate
D) Annual ledger expense
  • 61. Which agency type accepted the Courtney formula as the official risk analysis method?
A) Global health organizations
B) European banking institutions
C) Private tech startups
D) US governmental agencies
  • 62. What must be addressed alongside evaluating the severity of consequences for intangible assets?
A) Employee holiday schedules
B) Office furniture colors
C) Asset valuation
D) Building architectural designs
  • 63. How many essential techniques does risk management planning use?
A) Five
B) Three
C) Two
D) Four
  • 64. Which technique involves intentionally assuming risks without financial protections?
A) Transfer
B) Avoidance
C) Acceptance
D) Reduction
  • 65. Which approach shields a business from losses by shifting risks to a third party?
A) Transfer
B) Acceptance
C) Avoidance
D) Reduction
  • 66. In the transfer approach, what is frequently given in exchange for shifting risks?
A) A guarantee
B) A penalty
C) A fee
D) An asset
  • 67. What strategy avoids losses by choosing not to participate in high-risk ventures?
A) Avoidance
B) Acceptance
C) Reduction
D) Transfer
  • 68. By using the avoidance strategy, what else does the business lose out on besides avoiding losses?
A) Possibilities
B) Insurance policies
C) Third-party fees
D) Financial assets
  • 69. Which approach lowers risks by implementing strategies like insurance?
A) Reduction
B) Transfer
C) Avoidance
D) Acceptance
  • 70. What does insurance guarantee in the event of losses?
A) Enhancement
B) Reimbursement
C) Acquisition
D) Exploitation
  • 71. What is another meaning of the acronym ACAT used in US Defense industry procurements?
A) Acquisition Category
B) Accepted Contingency Asset Transfer
C) Asset Control and Transfer
D) Avoidance and Control Allocation Technique
  • 72. What are the specific mitigation strategies for opportunities mentioned in the text?
A) Avoid, control, accept, transfer
B) Eliminate, mitigate, insure, budget
C) Exploit, share, enhance, ignore
D) Accept, transfer, avoid, reduce
  • 73. What was a major problem with early software development methodologies?
A) They avoided treating high-risk patients
B) They had prohibitive Halon system costs
C) They used water sprinklers that caused damage
D) They only delivered software in the final phase
  • 74. How may insurance be described more accurately than as a risk transfer?
A) A pre-event prevention strategy
B) A post-event compensatory mechanism
C) A risk-retention pool
D) A complete hazard eradication tool
  • 75. Who remains the person who has been in the accident according to the text's car example?
A) The third-party contractor
B) The policyholder
C) The court judge
D) The insurance agent
  • 76. How do methods of managing risk fall?
A) Exclusively into risk transfer
B) Strictly into bankruptcy proceedings
C) Into multiple categories
D) Into a single mandatory category
  • 77. What type of insurance falls into the category of risk retention?
A) Commercial property insurance
B) True self-insurance
C) State-mandated health insurance
D) Mandatory liability insurance
  • 78. Which of the following is given as an example of a risk that is retained by default?
A) Routine employee turnover
B) Minor office property damage
C) War
D) Common computer viruses
  • 79. Which management level should decide on a risk concerning the image of the organization?
A) IT management
B) Junior staff
C) Facility management
D) Top management
  • 80. What is the second basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Vulnerability assessment
B) Threat assessment
C) Risk treatment planning
D) Impact assessment
  • 81. What is the third basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Risk mitigation strategy development
B) Control implementation
C) Impact assessment
D) Vulnerability assessment
  • 82. What is done with risks that are decided to be transferred during implementation?
A) Reporting them to external regulators.
B) Ignoring them completely.
C) Purchasing insurance policies.
D) Absorbing them entirely without coverage.
  • 83. How often should risk analysis results and management plans be updated?
A) On a daily basis without exception.
B) Periodically.
C) Once every decade.
D) Only after a major corporate failure.
  • 84. What do ERM systems usually focus on safeguarding?
A) Employee benefit packages.
B) Short-term profits.
C) Reputation.
D) Physical office buildings.
  • 85. What framework governs the parallel regulatory capital requirements, including for operational risk?
A) Bretton Woods
B) Dodd-Frank
C) Basel I
D) Basel III
  • 86. What do fund managers use to protect their fund value?
A) Various strategies
B) Indemnification provisions
C) Limitation of liability clauses
D) Standard contract language
  • 87. Who defined 'contractual risk management' as a practical, proactive and systematical contracting method?
A) CH2M Hill
B) La Gorce Country Club
C) Samuel Greengard
D) Petri Keskitalo
  • 88. What nationality is the academic Petri Keskitalo?
A) British
B) Swedish
C) American
D) Norwegian
  • 89. In what year was Samuel Greengard's article mentioning two US legal cases published?
A) 2010
B) 2020
C) 2015
D) 2005
  • 90. Which US legal case deals with the risk to a professional advisor who signs an indemnification provision?
A) Keskitalo v. UDC
B) Basel v. Greengard
C) UDC v. CH2M Hill
D) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
  • 91. Which US legal case deals with the effectiveness of a limitation of liability clause?
A) UDC v. CH2M Hill
B) Keskitalo v. Greengard
C) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
D) Basel v. La Gorce
  • 92. What did Samuel Greengard recommend using as much as possible to reduce risk?
A) Novel and customized legal terminology
B) Jurisdiction-specific indemnification clauses
C) Verbal agreements between parties
D) Industry-standard contract language
  • 93. Which risk analysis technique requires diagramming software according to the text?
A) Hazard analysis
B) Hazard and operability study
C) Fault tree analysis
D) Failure mode and effects analysis
  • 94. Which tool can be used to perform failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)?
A) Diagramming software only
B) Safety assurance case generators
C) Customs risk management frameworks
D) A spreadsheet program
  • 95. What method did the FDA introduce through a draft guidance for medical device safety assurance analysis?
A) Safety Assurance Case
B) Hazard and Operability Study
C) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
D) Fault Tree Analysis
  • 96. For which type of devices is a safety assurance case expected as part of pre-market clearance submission like 510(k)?
A) Customs inspection equipment
B) All types of medical devices without exception
C) Safety critical devices
D) Only non-implantable administrative devices
  • 97. What is a typical characteristic of a risk officer?
A) Lack of experience
B) Total indifference
C) Extreme optimism
D) A healthy skepticism
  • 98. Which of the following is an attribute of each risk in the database?
A) Customer satisfaction score
B) Employee salary
C) Project profit margin
D) Opening date
  • 99. What are megaprojects also sometimes called?
A) Major programs
B) Standard assignments
C) Micro initiatives
D) Minor tasks
  • 100. Which of the following is an example of a megaproject?
A) Residential sheds
B) Major bridges
C) Neighborhood parks
D) Local bicycle racks
Created with That Quiz — the site for test creation and grading in math and other subjects.