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IASEC2 MIDTERM REVIEWER: MORALLY QUESTIONABLE EDITION - Quiz
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. 2 + 2 =?
A) are you gagoing me?
B) 4
C) hmmm depende kung 3 yan kasi kung 3 yan edi 5
D) Sure ka sa mga question na toh?
E) may kaliwa ba sa right? may kanan ba sa left?
  • 2. What is the main purpose of application security testing (AST)?
A) To make applications run faster
B) To increase the number of users
C) To make applications more resistant to security threats by identifying security weaknesses and vulnerabilities in the source code
D) To reduce hosting costs
E) To design the user interface
  • 3. Which of the following best describes Static Application Security Testing (SAST)?
A) A tool that blocks network traffic
B) A method that attacks a running application
C) A white-box method that scans source code, bytecode, or binaries for security flaws without actually running the program
D) A way to monitor user behavior
E) A backup strategy
  • 4. Which of the following best describes Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)?
A) A tool for managing passwords
B) A way to train employees
C) A method that only reads source code
D) A type of firewall
E) A black-box method that evaluates a running application from the outside by simulating real-world hacker attacks to find live vulnerabilities
  • 5. What makes Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST) different from SAST and DAST?
A) It is used only after the software is retired
B) It tests only network cables
C) It does not test applications at all
D) It combines features of both by placing security agents inside a running application's environment to monitor code execution in real time
E) It only works on printed documents
  • 6. A developer wants to know whether the open-source libraries used in their project have known vulnerabilities. Which testing type should be used?
A) SAST
B) Wi-Fi scanning
C) DAST
D) Software Composition Analysis (SCA), which scans third-party libraries and open-source dependencies for known vulnerabilities or licensing issues
E) IAST
  • 7. Which tool is an open-source web application security testing tool used to identify vulnerabilities in web applications?
A) Nessus
B) SonarQube
C) OWASP ZAP, which automatically sends test requests to the application and analyzes the responses for vulnerabilities
D) Wireshark
E) Microsoft Word
  • 8. A tester wants to intercept a request, change its values, and send it again to see how the server responds. Which tool is the best fit?
A) A spreadsheet
B) Nessus
C) Burp Suite, an intercepting proxy that lets the tester view, modify, and resend HTTP requests
D) A web browser
E) SonarQube
  • 9. What does SonarQube do?
A) It manages user accounts
B) It analyzes source code to detect security vulnerabilities, bugs, code smells, and poor coding practices
C) It intercepts HTTP requests
D) It encrypts files
E) It scans Wi-Fi networks
  • 10. An admin needs to scan a server, a network device, and an application for weaknesses and get a report with Critical, High, Medium, and Low risk levels. Which tool fits?
A) Nessus, which compares scan results with a database of known vulnerabilities and generates a report with risk levels
B) SonarQube
C) A password manager
D) A file archiver
E) A word processor
  • 11. True or False: In the application security testing process, Reporting comes before Vulnerability Identification.
A) False
B) True
  • 12. What is the main purpose of Network Access Control (NAC)?
A) To track employee attendance
B) To design websites
C) To store backups of files
D) To speed up the network
E) To control and monitor who can access a network by allowing only verified users and compliant devices, enforcing security rules before access is granted
  • 13. When does Pre-Admission NAC take place?
A) After the device has left the network
B) Only during system backups
C) At the end of every month
D) Before a device joins the network, when its identity and compliance are evaluated during the connection request
E) Only when a virus is found
  • 14. A compromised device is already inside the network and tries to reach a sensitive area. Which NAC type helps stop this?
A) A printer driver
B) A screen saver
C) Post-Admission NAC, which restricts lateral movement by requiring re-authentication for sensitive areas
D) Pre-Admission NAC
E) A guest Wi-Fi password
  • 15. What does the Policy Server do in NAC?
A) It cools the server room
B) It determines the access level based on identity, permissions, device posture, and request type, then authorizes, restricts, or denies access
C) It sells network devices
D) It writes source code
E) It prints network reports
  • 16. Which of the following describes an Access Requestor (AR) in NAC?
A) A firewall rule
B) A software license
C) Any device, user, or process requesting network access, such as laptops, servers, IP cameras, printers, and IoT devices
D) A network cable
E) A backup tape
  • 17. A remote employee connects to the company network through a VPN gateway. Which NAC element serves as the access control point?
A) The office printer
B) The employee's email
C) The company logo
D) The Wi-Fi password
E) The Network Access Server (NAS), which provides secure entry to internal networks for remote employees
  • 18. Which of the following is a limitation of NAC?
A) It increases network speed
B) It has no policies
C) It works only on paper
D) It has low visibility and control over IoT devices or endpoints without specific user identities
E) It cannot block any device
  • 19. True or False: According to the slides, NAC protects against threats that originate within the network, such as insider attacks.
A) False
B) True
  • 20. What is the main goal of the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SSDLC)?
A) To replace all developers
B) To produce software that is reliable, secure, and resistant to cyberattacks while maintaining functionality and performance
C) To make software cheaper than competitors
D) To remove testing from development
E) To finish projects faster than planned
  • 21. What happens during the Planning Phase of the SSDLC?
A) The software is released
B) The project team identifies business goals, security objectives, potential risks, and compliance requirements
C) The code is written
D) Bugs are patched
E) Penetration testing is performed
  • 22. A team writes down that the system must support user authentication, access control, encryption, and audit logging. Which SSDLC phase is this?
A) The Retirement Phase
B) The Deployment Phase
C) The Maintenance Phase
D) The Testing Phase
E) The Requirements Phase, where both functional and security requirements are gathered and documented
  • 23. What is done during the Design Phase of the SSDLC?
A) Patches are applied
B) The software is retired
C) A secure system architecture is created, and threat modeling is performed to identify possible attacks and weaknesses
D) Backups are deleted
E) Users are trained
  • 24. What is done during the Testing Phase of the SSDLC?
A) The code is written
B) Business goals are set
C) The software is deployed
D) Requirements are collected
E) Security testing verifies that the application is protected against threats, including vulnerability assessments, penetration testing, SAST, and DAST
  • 25. What happens during the Deployment Phase of the SSDLC?
A) The project idea is proposed
B) Threat models are drawn
C) The software is thrown away
D) Requirements are collected
E) The application is configured securely and released, with access controls, monitoring systems, and backup strategies in place
  • 26. Why is the Maintenance Phase needed in the SSDLC?
A) Because design is finished
B) Because the software must be continuously monitored and updated with security patches to stay protected from newly discovered threats
C) Because testing is not allowed
D) Because it reduces user trust
E) Because software never changes
  • 27. True or False: The Secure Software Development Life Cycle extends the traditional SDLC by adding security-focused practices.
A) False
B) True
  • 28. What is the main purpose of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
A) To improve website speed
B) To update software
C) To encrypt all data
D) To make a computer, website, or network resource unavailable to its legitimate users
E) To quietly steal passwords
  • 29. How does a flood attack cause denial of service?
A) It sends a single small email
B) It installs a new browser
C) It deletes the user's account
D) It saturates the targeted server with an overwhelming amount of packets so legitimate users cannot reach it
E) It changes the website colors
  • 30. Which of the following is a method used to help prevent DoS attacks?
A) Ignoring unusual traffic
B) Turning off logging
C) Using a cloud mitigation provider, which is more effective than relying on a firewall alone
D) Sharing admin passwords
E) Disabling the firewall
  • 31. What is SQL Injection?
A) A method of encrypting databases
B) A tool for designing tables
C) A type of Wi-Fi attack
D) A vulnerability where attackers inject malicious SQL queries through user inputs to manipulate the backend database
E) A way to back up a database
  • 32. A website's login form lets users type SQL code that the database then runs. What is the best way to prevent this?
A) Remove the login form
B) Trust all user input
C) Display detailed database errors
D) Use prepared statements and parameterized queries, and validate and restrict user input
E) Give all users full privileges
  • 33. Which type of SQL injection forces the database to generate an error message to reveal information?
A) Error-based SQL injection, where the attacker intentionally causes the database to generate an error message
B) Blind SQL injection
C) Union-based SQL injection
D) Stored XSS
E) DOM-based XSS
  • 34. What is Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?
A) A hardware failure
B) A vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious client-side scripts, usually JavaScript, into a trusted website that then run in other users' browsers
C) A database backup
D) A fake email asking for passwords
E) An attack that floods a server with packets
  • 35. Which type of XSS permanently stores malicious input in the application and executes it whenever users visit the page?
A) Reflected XSS
B) Union-based injection
C) Stored XSS, where the malicious input is permanently saved by the application and runs for every visitor
D) Blind SQL injection
E) DOM-based XSS
  • 36. How does a Content Security Policy (CSP) help against XSS?
A) It deletes cookies
B) It blocks all users
C) It speeds up scripts
D) It reduces the impact of XSS by restricting the sources from which scripts are allowed to execute
E) It encrypts the database
  • 37. What is phishing?
A) A way to back up files
B) A cyberattack where criminals pretend to be a trusted person or organization to trick victims into sharing information, clicking bad links, or downloading malware
C) A method for speeding up the internet
D) A kind of antivirus
E) A type of fishing app
  • 38. A user receives an email that looks like it is from their bank and asks for their one-time password (OTP). What should they do?
A) Reply with the OTP
B) Forward it to friends
C) Ignore all security tools
D) Click the link quickly
E) Avoid clicking links or sharing the OTP, verify the sender through official channels, and turn on Multi-Factor Authentication
  • 39. True or False: CSRF tokens and SameSite cookies are listed as ways to prevent CSRF.
A) True
B) False
  • 40. What does the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) do?
A) It governs children's websites
B) It sets rules for credit cards
C) It criminalizes unauthorized access to computer systems in the United States
D) It protects patient health records
E) It regulates online ads
  • 41. A hospital must protect the privacy and security of patient health data. Which U.S. law sets these standards?
A) GLBA
B) SOX
C) COPPA
D) CFAA
E) HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
  • 42. Which U.S. law requires financial institutions to protect customers' personal information?
A) FISMA
B) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), which applies to financial institutions
C) HIPAA
D) SOX
E) COPPA
  • 43. Which U.S. law governs data practices for online services aimed at children?
A) HIPAA
B) The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA), which regulates how services handle children's data
C) GLBA
D) CFAA
E) SOX
  • 44. Which U.S. agency regulates cybersecurity through its authority over unfair or deceptive trade practices?
A) The FBI
B) The NIST
C) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC), through its authority over unfair or deceptive trade practices
D) The DHS
E) The Department of Agriculture
  • 45. A California resident asks a company to delete their personal data and stop selling it. Which law gives them this right?
A) SOX
B) HIPAA
C) FISMA
D) COPPA
E) The California Consumer Privacy Act and California Privacy Rights Act (CCPA/CPRA)
  • 46. Which standard provides protocols and guidelines that secure credit and debit card transactions?
A) CMMC
B) HIPAA
C) SOX
D) PCI-DSS, the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard
E) COPPA
  • 47. True or False: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework is a law.
A) False
B) True
  • 48. What is ethical hacking?
A) Breaking into accounts for fun
B) Hacking done to harm users
C) Selling stolen passwords
D) Hacking done secretly to steal data
E) Hacking done with permission to find security weaknesses and help improve security, following rules and agreements
  • 49. What does data privacy mean?
A) Deleting all data daily
B) Protecting personal and sensitive information so it is not accessed or shared without proper authorization
C) Collecting as much data as possible
D) Sharing data with everyone
E) Making data public
  • 50. Which of the following is a responsibility of a cybersecurity professional?
A) Hiding incidents
B) Using weak passwords
C) Sharing client data publicly
D) Keeping information confidential, following company policies, avoiding conflicts of interest, and reporting incidents properly
E) Ignoring policies
  • 51. A security analyst logs into a coworker's account without permission just to look around. How is this viewed?
A) It is ethical hacking
B) It is a safety measure
C) It is a normal part of the job
D) It is allowed if no data is taken
E) It is considered illegal and unethical because accessing an account without permission is unauthorized access
  • 52. True or False: Hacking into a system without permission is illegal.
A) True
B) False
  • 53. What is Wireless Network Security?
A) Making Wi-Fi faster
B) Selling wireless devices
C) Installing more routers
D) Extending the signal range
E) The protection of wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi, from unauthorized access, cyber threats, and data theft
  • 54. Which encryption standards are recommended for securing a Wi-Fi network?
A) No encryption
B) A shared public password
C) An open network
D) WPA2 or WPA3, because they protect wireless access with strong encryption
E) Plain text
  • 55. A fake Wi-Fi network appears with a name nearly identical to a cafĂ©'s real network. Which threat is this?
A) A firmware update
B) A guest network
C) A strong password
D) Eavesdropping
E) A rogue or fake access point, which is an unauthorized network that imitates a legitimate one
  • 56. A new router has just been installed. Which security measure is recommended?
A) Share the password publicly
B) Disable all security
C) Keep the default password
D) Change the default administrator password and keep devices updated with security updates
E) Turn off encryption
  • 57. Which practice helps keep different groups of users separate on a wireless network?
A) Using one shared network for all
B) Giving guests the staff password
C) Removing all passwords
D) Turning off the router
E) Creating separate guest, student, and staff networks so each group has only the access it needs
  • 58. Why are weak passwords a risk to wireless networks?
A) Easy-to-guess passwords increase the risk of unauthorized access to the network
B) They slow down the router
C) They erase saved data
D) They reduce battery life
E) They make the signal weaker
  • 59. What is the main purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
A) To block all advertisements
B) To increase Wi-Fi range
C) To store files online
D) To create an encrypted tunnel between your device and a VPN server that protects your data and hides your real IP address
E) To make websites load faster
  • 60. How does a VPN affect your IP address?
A) It sells it
B) It publishes it online
C) It leaves it unchanged
D) The VPN server replaces your real IP address with its own public IP address
E) It deletes your device
  • 61. An employee works from home and needs secure access to company files. Which VPN type fits best?
A) A wireless printer
B) A Remote Access VPN, which connects individual users securely to a remote private network
C) No VPN at all
D) A Double VPN
E) A Site-to-Site VPN
  • 62. A large business wants to connect multiple branch offices into one private network using routers. Which VPN type fits?
A) A Site-to-Site VPN, which connects entire networks using routers instead of apps on user devices
B) A Double VPN
C) A Mobile VPN
D) A Remote Access VPN
E) A Personal VPN
  • 63. Which VPN type is optimized for smartphones and tablets?
A) A Double VPN
B) A Cloud VPN
C) A Personal VPN
D) A Site-to-Site VPN
E) A Mobile VPN, which is designed to stay secure as the user switches between networks
  • 64. What is a Double VPN?
A) A VPN that links two offices
B) A VPN that routes and encrypts traffic through two separate servers instead of just one
C) A VPN that encrypts half the data
D) A VPN with two passwords
E) Two phones on one VPN
  • 65. Which VPN protocol is open-source, highly configurable, and considered the industry standard for maximum security?
A) PPTP
B) L2TP
C) OpenVPN, which is open-source and highly configurable
D) SSH
E) SSTP
  • 66. Which VPN protocol is lightweight and has a much smaller code base than older protocols?
A) SSTP
B) WireGuard, a newer protocol with a much smaller code base
C) PPTP
D) IKEv2
E) L2TP
  • 67. Which VPN protocol does not encrypt data on its own and is almost always paired with IPSec?
A) OpenVPN
B) SSTP
C) IKEv2
D) L2TP, which relies on IPSec to provide the encryption
E) WireGuard
  • 68. True or False: According to the VPN conclusion, a VPN makes you entirely anonymous online.
A) False
B) True
  • 69. In the CIA triad, what does Confidentiality mean?
A) Systems never go down
B) Only authorized users can access the information, keeping sensitive data protected from unauthorized people
C) Data is always backed up
D) Everyone can view data
E) Data is deleted often
  • 70. In the CIA triad, what does Integrity mean?
A) Systems are always online
B) Users are always logged in
C) Data remains accurate and unaltered whether it is in transit or in storage
D) Data is deleted daily
E) Data is hidden from everyone
  • 71. In the CIA triad, what does Availability mean?
A) Systems shut down at night
B) Data is kept secret
C) Only admins can log in
D) Data is never changed
E) Systems and data are accessible whenever they are legitimately needed by authorized users
  • 72. What is defense in depth?
A) Using a single password
B) Relying on one strong firewall
C) Trusting all internal users
D) Using multiple, overlapping layers of security so that if one layer fails, others still protect the system
E) Protecting only the perimeter
  • 73. An employee is given only the minimum access they need to do their job. Which security principle is being applied?
A) Least privilege, where users, apps, and devices receive only the access they need
B) Redundancy
C) Zero access
D) Open access
E) Defense in depth
  • 74. What is network segmentation used for?
A) Removing firewalls
B) Making Wi-Fi faster
C) Increasing the number of users
D) Storing backups
E) Dividing the network into zones, such as VLANs and subnets, to limit how far an attacker can move
  • 75. What is the main idea of Zero Trust?
A) Trust only the firewall
B) Trust verified devices forever
C) Never trust, always verify: every user and device must be authenticated and authorized for each access request
D) Trust everyone inside the network
E) Trust all employees
  • 76. A company wants to place its public web services in a buffer zone, separate from its internal network. Which component fits?
A) A password
B) A VPN client
C) A backup tape
D) A SIEM
E) A DMZ, which acts as a buffer zone for public services
  • 77. What does a SIEM platform do?
A) It prints reports
B) It collects logs from every zone, correlates events, detects anomalies, and supports incident response
C) It encrypts disks
D) It creates user accounts
E) It repairs hardware
  • 78. In AAA, what does Accounting do?
A) It blocks traffic
B) It logs activity for audit and forensics so that actions can be traced later
C) It verifies who the user is
D) It grants permissions
E) It encrypts data
  • 79. True or False: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework has five functions: Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover.
A) True
B) False
  • 80. What is the main focus of Network Application Security?
A) Fixing broken cables
B) Selling licenses
C) Designing logos
D) Managing office printers
E) Identifying and fixing vulnerabilities in applications, which correspond to Common Weakness Enumerations (CWEs)
  • 81. Which tools are listed for Network Application Security?
A) SAST, DAST, and IAST, which analyze application code and behavior for vulnerabilities
B) Firewalls only
C) Wireshark and AirCrack
D) Routers and switches
E) Backups only
  • 82. Which tools are listed for traditional Network Security?
A) Burp Suite only
B) SonarQube only
C) SAST and DAST
D) IAST only
E) Wireshark, AirCrack, and Metasploit, which focus on network-level testing
  • 83. Which risk is ranked #1 on the OWASP Top 10 as presented?
A) Broken Access Control, where users can act outside their intended permissions
B) SSRF
C) Insecure Design
D) Injection
E) Cryptographic Failures
  • 84. Which OWASP risk involves sensitive data not being properly protected in transit or at rest?
A) SSRF
B) Broken Access Control
C) Injection
D) Cryptographic Failures, which can lead to exposure of passwords, health records, and personal data
E) Insecure Design
  • 85. What is Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)?
A) A stolen password
B) An email scam
C) A faulty server fan
D) A broken login page
E) A flaw where a web app pulls data from a remote resource without validating the user-supplied URL
  • 86. What does a Web Application Firewall (WAF) do?
A) It monitors and filters HTTP traffic at OSI layer 7, working like a reverse proxy that shields the server
B) It repairs software
C) It scans physical devices
D) It encrypts email
E) It manages passwords
  • 87. What does Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) do?
A) It writes source code
B) It scans Wi-Fi networks
C) It analyzes user behavior and application traffic at runtime and can terminate sessions that exploit weaknesses
D) It backs up databases
E) It installs updates
  • 88. What is a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM)?
A) A list of staff members
B) A list of project costs
C) A set of firewall rules
D) A copy of the source code
E) A comprehensive list of a software's components, including open-source and proprietary libraries and modules
  • 89. What does "shift left" mean in DevSecOps?
A) Integrating security earlier in the software development life cycle so vulnerabilities are cheaper and easier to fix
B) Moving security to the end
C) Removing developers
D) Skipping testing
E) Testing only in production
  • 90. A vulnerable open-source library has a high CVSS score, but the application never invokes the vulnerable code. What do the slides say about its risk?
A) The CVSS score carries no real risk because the vulnerable code is not actually used
B) It means a breach occurred
C) The application must go offline
D) It must be ignored forever
E) It must always be fixed first
  • 91. True or False: Gray box testing uses limited internal access, such as a signed-in user's login credentials.
A) True
B) False
  • 92. What does OWASP stand for?
A) Official Web Safety Panel
B) Open Web Server Policy
C) Online Web Access Security Plan
D) Open Wireless App Standard
E) Open Worldwide Application Security Project
  • 93. What is the common mistake in input validation?
A) Rejecting invalid input
B) Validating on the server
C) Checking input only in the browser and not validating it again on the server
D) Using strong passwords
E) Checking the year entered
  • 94. What is the purpose of output encoding?
A) To check logins
B) To make user data safe before it is displayed on a webpage so it cannot run as code
C) To create sessions
D) To hash passwords
E) To back up databases
  • 95. What is a common mistake in authentication and password management?
A) Verifying credentials
B) Storing passwords in plain text instead of protecting them with appropriate password-hashing practices
C) Using strong passwords
D) Using secure sessions
E) Hashing passwords
  • 96. A student can view their own enrollment but cannot approve another student's enrollment. Which secure coding practice enforces this?
A) Error Handling
B) Input Validation
C) Cryptography
D) Output Encoding
E) Access Control, which checks what an authenticated user is allowed to do
  • 97. What is a common mistake in error handling and logging?
A) Failing safely
B) Recording useful events
C) Showing a safe error message
D) Logging failed logins
E) Showing stack traces, database details, or other sensitive technical information to users
  • 98. A production server still uses default credentials, unnecessary services, and development settings. Which practice has been ignored?
A) Output Encoding
B) Access Control
C) Input Validation
D) Session Management
E) System Configuration, which secures the environment the application runs in
  • 99. What is a common mistake in session management?
A) Leaving sessions active unnecessarily or failing to protect session identifiers
B) Ending sessions after logout
C) Validating the session
D) Creating a protected session
E) Using timeouts
  • 100. What is a common mistake in cryptographic practices?
A) Using secure channels
B) Understanding the goal
C) Managing keys securely
D) Protecting data
E) Inventing your own encryption instead of using established, suitable cryptographic protection
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