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PES SS 3 Economics (Objective) Mock 3 Exam 2025/2026
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  • 1. Points within a Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) indicate ____________.
A) unattainable production levels
B) optimum production levels
C) attainable and efficient production levels
D) attainable but inefficient production levels
  • 2. Which of the following is not a feature of labour?
A) Its reward is wages or salaries
B) Its efficiency depends on its size
C) It is an active factor
D) It is highly mobile
  • 3. The pursuit of private profits is a feature of ______________
A) Command economic
B) Capitalist economic
C) Socialist economic
D) Statutory economic
  • 4. A major feature of the socialist economic system is ______________
A) Setting of production targets by public authorities
B) Private ownership of productive input
C) Freedom of choice for consumers
D) Determination of Price by market forces
  • 5. If the budget on education is $50 m out of an annual national budget of $300 m. The sector of a pie chart representing education is _________.
A) 16.6°
B) 150°
C) 60°
D) 300°
  • 6. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in _______________.
A) Price of another product
B) Income of the buyer
C) Price of the product
D) Demand for the product
  • 7. When total revenue increases as price falls, the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is  ______________
A) Zero
B) Less then one
C) Greater then one
D) One
  • 8. If the quantity demanded of rice de- creased from 150 bags to 100 bags, the percentage change in quantity demanded is ____________.
A) 66.7%
B) 30.0%
C) 50.0%
D) 33.3%
  • 9. The law of demand will not hold when
A) Size of the production change
B) Normal goods are involved
C) Rare commodities
D) Incomes of consumers increase
  • 10. If the coefficient of price elasticity of supply of a commodity is 0.8, then supply is ____________
A) fairly elastic
B) perfectly inelastic
C) Perfectly elastic
D) fairly inelastic
  • 11. The negative slope of the demand curve is best explained by ____________.
A) diminishing marginal utility
B) consumer's choice
C) increasing returns to scale
D) diminishing returns to scale
  • 12. Minimum price legislation is used to protect the interests of ___________.
A) foreign companies.
B) Consumers
C) Small scale producers
D) Government
  • 13. Which of the following best explains diseconomies of scale? Increase in output causes the _______________.
A) marginal revenue to fall
B) average cost to rise
C) firm to be de- stabilized
D) marginal cost to fall
  • 14. In the short-run, a firm can increase output by ______________
A) purchasing more equipment
B) increasing the quantity of raw materials
C) changing its organizational structure
D) increasing the size of its machines
  • 15. The fixed cost of producing 100 units of a good is $600. If the variable cost is $400. the average total cost of one unit of the good is __________
A) $6
B) $4
C) $8
D) $10
  • 16. Firms in perfect competition break even in the long-run because of __________
A) profits are not enough to repay traders' loans
B) new firms can not enter the market due to copyright laws
C) more firms can enter the industry due to attractive prof its
D) marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost at all levels
  • 17. The government policy that encourages public corporations to operate profitably is ____________.
A) indigenization
B) nationalization
C) commercialization
D) liberalization
  • 18. Separation of ownership from control is more pronounced in a __________
A) joint-stock company
B) partnership
C) constimer co- operative society
D) sole proprietorship
  • 19. Warehousing of goods in the process of distribution is the function of __________.
A) Department store
B) Wholesalers
C) Supermarket
D) Retailers
  • 20. The supply of labour to an occupation will tend to rise when ____________
A) there are less monetary benefits
B) unemployment benefit rises
C) welfare packages improve
D) holiday entitlement is cut
  • 21. Commercial banks settle their inter-bank indebtedness through __________.
A) development banks
B) merchant banks
C) central banks
D) Stock exchange
  • 22. In determining the growth of a country's population, infant mortality is a component of _______________
A) death rate
B) net migration.
C) immigration rate.
D) fertility rate.
  • 23. The low productivity per worker in agriculture experienced in West African countries is due to _____________ .
A) the presence of many extension workers
B) laziness on the part of farmers
C) the use of simple traditional implements
D) the law of increasing returns to scale
  • 24. What will be the likely effect if agriculture is fully mechanized in West Africa?
A) More jobs will be available for farm labourers
B) Governments will no longer be involved in agriculture
C) Labour intensive method of farming will still be dominant
D) Less labour will be required on the farm
  • 25. National income estimates will be understated as a result of the activities of ___________
A) housekeepers
B) musicians
C) laundry women
D) subsistence farmers
  • 26. The function of money that enables credit purchases of goods and services is _____________
A) unit of account
B) standard for deferred payment
C) store of value
D) relative scarcity
  • 27. Supply of money is best defined as the __________.
A) money in circulation plus bank deposits
B) amount of money spent on consumer goods
C) amount of currency printed annually by the government.
D) money given out as loans to members of the public
  • 28. Capital market operators deal in the ____________.
A) supply of and demand for short term loans only
B) sales and purchases of capital equipment
C) sales and purchases of treasury bills
D) supply of and demand for long term loans for investment
  • 29. A commodity with perfectly inelastic demand has the burden of tax borne by __________.
A) both the sellers and the buyers
B) the buyers alone
C) both the buyers and the government
D) the government alone
  • 30. One indicator of the low level of cap ital formation in developing countries is ___________ .
A) high rate of investment
B) low importation of consumer goods
C) low per capita income
D) high rate of household savings
  • 31. Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resources?
A) Oil palm
B) Coal
C) Rubber
D) Cocoa
  • 32. The demand for a factor input as a result of the demand for it output is known as ____________
A) Market demand
B) Complementary demand
C) Competitive demand
D) Derived demand
  • 33. If the government stops subsidy on cocoa production, the supply curve of coca will ____________.
A) Shift to the right
B) Remain unchanged
C) Become vertical
D) Shift to the left
  • 34. The supply of light could be met using a candle, lantern and gas lamp. This is an example of a____________.
A) Abnormal supply
B) Complementary supply
C) Joint supply
D) Composite
  • 35. Industries are sometimes located in areas which are not profitable so as to ____________ .
A) Encourage rural urban migration
B) Be about external economies of scale
C) Be able to even out development
D) Be able to reap internal economies of scake
  • 36. The study of economics is mainly concerned with how to
A) satisfy every member of all societies
B) produce all the goods needed by everyone
C) rank individuals' wants given the abundant resources
D) make choice when resources are inadequate
  • 37. Resources are pooled for the mutual benefit of its members mainly in a
A) private company
B) cooperative society
C) partnership
D) joint stock company
  • 38. The total fixed cost curve is
A) downward sloping
B) vertical
C) upward sloping
D) horizontal
  • 39. A small scale firm located within an industrial estate will enjoy
A) financial economies of scale
B) external economies of scale
C) government protection and funding
D) technological economies of scale
  • 40. When job vacancies are publicized, the government is mainly trying to solve the problem of
A) residual unemployment
B) cyclical unemployment
C) frictional unemployment
D) technological unemployment
  • 41. An indication that there is inflation in a country is that
A) there are too many goods in circulation
B) the same amount of money buys lower quantity of goods
C) there is a decrease in the demand for goods and services
D) people prefer to lend than to borrow
  • 42. An example of government's recurrent expenditure is
A) the cost of building a school
B) purchase of new vehicles
C) electrification projects in rural areas
D) paying salaries of workers
  • 43. A fall in the price of a normal commodity which has elastic demand will result in
A) a decrease in revenue
B) a fall in quantity demanded
C) a fall in demand
D) an increase in revenue
  • 44. The dependency ratio of a country is the
A) number of children who depend on their parents for survival
B) the children and aged who rely on the active population for support
C) people who are cared for by their extended families
D) total active population who depend on government for survival
  • 45. When the demand for a commodity increases while supply remains unchanged, the equilibrium price and quantity will
A) increase
B) turn negative
C) decrease
D) remain constant
  • 46. Consumers have access to a variety of goods through the activities of the
A) mass media
B) advertising agencies
C) wholesalers
D) retailers
  • 47. The Malthusian theory of population is best illustrated when
A) population increases much faster than food supply
B) both population and food supply increase at the same rate
C) food supply increases much faster than population growth
D) the size of the population and available resources are equal
  • 48. The Net National Product (NNP) of a country is $50m while the depreciation allowance is $10m. The Gross National Product (GNP) is
A) $30m
B) $60m
C) $40m
D) $500m
  • 49. The rate of growth of population is
A) birth rate less death rate plus net migration
B) initial population plus number of births and net migration
C) the difference between birth rate and death rate
D) the number of immigrants plus number of births
  • 50. One of the factor that may not promote industrial development is
A) local firms entering into partnerships with foreign firms
B) granting capital to firms at reasonable interest rates
C) granting old firms tax exemptions
D) setting up industrial estates with modern amenities
  • 51. Many workers are employed in the agricultural sector of developing countries because
A) they practice mechanized system of farming
B) labour intensive method is mostly adopted
C) abnormal profits are made
D) wages in the sector is high
  • 52. Taxes levied on goods and services by government are called
A) corporate taxes
B) indirect taxes
C) direct taxes
D) poll taxes
  • 53. The most liquid asset among the following is
A) shares
B) cheque
C) bonds
D) cash
  • 54. Petrol and Kerosene are jointly obtained from crude oil. If the supply of petrol increases, the
A) cost of crude oil production has increased
B) supply of kerosene will fall
C) supply of kerosene will rise
D) supply of kerosene will remain unchanged
  • 55. The fixing of maximum prices by government is mainly on
A) selected essential goods
B) imported capital goods
C) inferior goods
D) luxury goods
  • 56. The marks obtained by 9 students in a class test are recorded below: 9, 8, 7, 5,7, 6, 8, 9 and 7. What is the median mark?
A) 7.5
B) 8
C) 7
D) 8.5
  • 57. Tariffs, quotas and embargoes are examples of
A) foreign exchange policies
B) monetary policies
C) fiscal policies
D) trade restriction policies
  • 58. A country is described as developing if
A) the income per head is low
B) there is low labour supply
C) the contribution of tertiary sector to national income is high
D) the population is decreasing
  • 59. Which of the following is not a problem facing Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)?
A) Language barriers
B) Production of the same commodities
C) Inadequate supply of labour
D) Poor transportation and communication
  • 60. An increase in a country's production capacity usually leads to economic
A) efficiency
B) development
C) stability
D) growth
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