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CLJ1 - Quiz
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
B) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
C) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
D) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Prosecuting accused individuals.
B) Arresting suspects after a robbery
C) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
D) Conducting custodial interrogation.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Non-delegation of powers
B) Absolute independence of agencies
C) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
D) Jurisdictional supremacy
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Failure in community policing
B) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
B) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
C) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
D) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
B) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
C) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
D) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
B) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
C) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
D) It replaces the need for police investigation
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Traffic violations along EDSA
B) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
C) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
D) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Proportionality in sentencing
B) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
C) Separation of powers
D) Judicial independence
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Arresting suspects in arson cases
B) Prohibiting building permits
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
B) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
C) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
D) Mandate over international law enforcement
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Chain of custody
B) Collaborative governance
C) Separation of powers
D) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
D) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It prevents further police intervention.
B) It provides legal representation for suspects.
C) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
D) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) BFP
B) DOJ
C) PDEA
D) NBI
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Unity of command
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
D) Overstepping of authority
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They provide legal defense for the accused.
B) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
C) They control the courts.
D) They supervise prison corrections.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Fire suppression capability
B) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
C) Nationwide precinct deployment
D) Barangay patrol assistance
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
B) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
C) Automatic conviction of suspects.
D) Media coverage is reduced.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
B) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
C) It supervises barangay elections.
D) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Integrity of judicial process
B) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
C) Efficiency of case disposal
D) Prosecutorial discretion
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Delegation violates separation of powers
B) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
C) Courts do not trust police testimony
D) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To protect prosecutors from liability
C) To ensure cases are filed quickly
D) To reduce the workload of judges
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) Courts will automatically convict
D) It strengthens police credibility
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
B) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
C) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
D) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
B) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
C) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
D) Release the suspect immediately
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Defer to the judge for determination
B) Require additional police affidavits only
C) Dismiss the case outright
D) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Prosecutorial independence
B) Judicial discretion
C) Legislative intent
D) Police authority in law enforcement
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
B) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Automatic appeal to DOJ
B) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
C) Mistrial
D) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They approve police promotions
B) They decide on guilt or innocence
C) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
D) They supervise correctional facilities
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Order the suspect’s immediate release
B) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
C) File the case anyway and let the court decide
D) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) DOJ circulars prohibit it
B) Courts demand police neutrality
C) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
D) Police may exaggerate findings
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By conducting speedy trials
B) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
C) By automatically recommending bail
D) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
B) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
C) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
D) Both serve only as police procedures
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to speedy disposition of cases
B) Right to equal protection
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to free counsel
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
B) The case proceeds unaffected
C) The case will automatically be dismissed
D) Evidence will be considered waived
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Probable cause requirement
B) Res judicata
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Adversarial principle
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to due process
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to equal protection of the laws
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
B) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
C) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
D) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
B) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
C) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
D) To expand the power of barangay courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
B) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
C) Both share identical jurisdictions.
D) Both A and C
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
B) Parties are free to choose any court.
C) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Estafa committed by a private individual.
B) Family disputes involving annulment.
C) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
D) Cybercrime by a private company.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Collegiality
B) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
C) Principle of Judicial Activism
D) Principle of Judicial Economy
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It directly tries barangay disputes.
B) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
C) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
D) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
B) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
C) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
D) They serve as administrative bodies only.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Barangay conciliation disputes
B) Murder
C) Violation of traffic rules
D) Theft involving ₱5,000
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
B) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
C) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
D) Doctrine of Judicial Review
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles marriage annulments.
B) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
C) Because it handles electoral disputes.
D) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
B) When an MTC judge is absent.
C) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
D) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
B) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
C) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
D) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
B) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
C) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
D) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) Criminal cases involving Muslims
B) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
C) All cases in Mindanao
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Supreme Court
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Retribution
B) Expediency
C) Human rights protection
D) Administrative convenience
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Nature of detainees’ custody
B) Jurisdictional funding
C) Size of facilities
D) Geographic scope
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To punish detainees further
B) To delay enforcement of judgment
C) To reduce congestion only
D) To assign custody to the proper agency
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Reformation programs
B) Maintaining jails
C) Issuing warrants
D) Crime investigation
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right against cruel punishment
B) Right to bail
C) Right to property
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Prosecutorial lapse
B) Judicial oversight
C) Administrative error
D) Jurisdictional custody
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Reduce costs
B) Punish more severely
C) Manage risks and rehabilitation
D) Delay reintegration
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Geographic scope
B) Funding allocation
C) Political mandate
D) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Handling warrants
B) Managing short-term detainees
C) Administrative budgeting
D) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They reduce recidivism
B) They provide employment to jail staff
C) They replace judicial proceedings
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Prosecution
B) Corrections
C) Law enforcement
D) Judiciary
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Political interference
B) Overcrowding
C) National classification
D) Excessive budgets
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Humanitarian function of jails
B) Prosecutorial support
C) Judicial oversight
D) Sentencing
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
B) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
C) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
D) Courts automatically release parolees
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To delay transfer of convicts
B) To increase BJMP budget
C) To punish detainees twice
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Retribution
B) Isolation
C) Deterrence
D) Reformation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Issuing arrest warrants
B) Drafting laws
C) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
D) Conducting criminal investigations
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Professionalization and rehabilitation
B) Expansion of local jails
C) Political independence
D) Privatization
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Higher operational costs
B) Violence and security breaches
C) Judicial appeals
D) Faster reintegration
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Lack of judicial authority
B) Overcrowding
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Geographic limitation
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both adjudicate disputes
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both prosecute criminal cases
D) They both issue arrest warrants
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
B) Supervising prosecutors
C) Issuing criminal warrants
D) Managing trial schedules
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) Court orders override rules
B) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
C) BuCor refuses custody
D) DOJ lacks authority
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Increase judicial backlog
B) Reduce state expenses
C) Ensure longer detention
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Detainees are presumed innocent
B) BJMP lacks resources
C) BuCor has exclusive authority
D) Courts control BJMP
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
B) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
C) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
D) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To reduce the power of trial courts.
B) To directly handle barangay disputes.
C) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
D) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
B) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
C) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
D) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
B) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
C) A murder case filed before the RTC.
D) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
B) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
C) They exercise only appellate functions.
D) They create laws for implementation.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Handling cybercrimes independently
B) Supervising barangay justice systems
C) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
D) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
B) To replace judicial oversight
C) To centralize all powers in one body
D) To reduce agency manpower
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
B) Judges’ impartiality
C) Influence of the suspects
D) Lack of PDEA authority
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
B) It rehabilitates offenders.
C) It determines guilt or innocence.
D) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
B) Failure in custodial investigation
C) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
D) Procedural redundancy
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
C) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
D) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
B) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
C) It allows judges to review every complaint
D) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
B) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
C) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
D) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
B) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
C) Case is automatically filed in court
D) Court may still conduct trial
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
B) They determine penalties imposed by courts
C) They lead all criminal investigations
D) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
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