A) All of the Above B) Forensic Medicine C) Legal Medicine D) Medical Jurisprudence
A) Medico - legal Expert B) All of the Above C) Medical Examiner D) Medical Jurist
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals C) all of these D) Health officers
A) Autopsic B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Medico legal autopsy B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsic
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico-legal autopsy C) Autopsy/Necropsy D) Autoptic
A) Criminal law B) Civil Law C) Remedial law D) Special law
A) Crimes against chastity B) Circumstances affecting criminal liability C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against property
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Material Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Proma Facie Evidence
A) Alkaline test B) Albumin test C) Acid hematin D) Precipitin test
A) Tape recording them B) Written interrogatories C) Photographing it D) Memories
A) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed B) Identity of the suspect C) Cordon the area D) Method of operation's of the suspect
A) Abrasion B) Punchured C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Punchured wound D) Contusion
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Abrasion D) Punctured wound
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Punctured wound
A) Homicide B) Robbery C) Armed Robbery D) Arrest
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) The face appears softened C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached
A) Justifying circumstances B) Defense wound C) Lacerated wound D) Incised wound
A) Less serious physical injury B) Slight physical injury C) Serious physical injury D) Mutilation
A) Rigor mortis B) Diffusion Livility C) Hypostatics Livility D) Hyper Livility
A) Moral virginity B) Virgo-intacta C) Physical virginity D) Demi-virginity
A) Livor mortis B) 48 hours death C) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension D) Primary flaccidity
A) 45-60 minutes B) 15-30 minutes C) 30-45 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Putrefaction B) Saponification C) Livor mortis D) Carbolization
A) 48 hours B) 24 hours C) 12 hours D) 36 hours
A) Death, property damage B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Physical injuries and death D) Fatal, non fatal, property damage
A) Violet B) yellow C) Pink D) Bright red
A) Electrical burn B) Radiation burn C) Thermal burn D) Friction burn
A) 13 years old B) 15 years old C) 14 years old D) 12 years old
A) All of these B) A non- aggressive assailant C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) A non-resisting victim
A) Dolor B) Rubor C) Calor D) Tenor
A) Vital Deactivation B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Infection
A) Open Wounds B) Closed Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Mortal Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Inscised Wound C) Stab Wound D) Punctured Wound
A) 1-2 hours B) 3-4 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 6-8 hours
A) Saponification B) Maceration C) Mummification D) Purge
A) Sadism B) Fornication C) Sado-masochism D) Masochism
A) Coup Contre-Coup Injur B) Coup Injury C) Contre-Coup Injury D) Locus Minoris Resistancia
A) Homicide B) Infanticide C) Murder D) Parricide
A) Parricide B) Infanticide C) Murder D) Homicide
A) Homicide B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) Must be described and inventoried C) All of the above D) Must be turned over to the police as evidence
A) Mercy Killing B) Passive Euthanasia C) Euthanasia D) Active Euthanasia
A) 12 hours B) 8 hours C) 3 hours D) 6 hours
A) Suffocation B) Hanging C) Strangulation D) Asphyxia
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Incised Wound D) Abrasion
A) Virginity B) Defloration C) Moral Virginity D) Carnal Knowledge
A) Contusion B) Close Wound C) Petechiae D) Hematoma
A) More than 25 inches B) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) 12 inches
A) Last medical history B) All of the above C) Witness accounts D) Circumstances of the death
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper C) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic
A) Evidence B) Rule of Court C) Autoptic D) Real
A) Oralism B) Masochism C) Sadism D) Fetishism
A) Vampirism B) Mannikinism C) Narcissism D) Pygmalionism
A) Autosexual B) Necrophilia C) Bestosexual D) Gerontophilia
A) 2 to 3 hours B) 3 to 4 hours C) 4 to 5 hours D) 5 to 6 hours
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) All of the above C) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Health officers
A) Post-mortem investigation B) Exhumation C) Autopsy D) Crime scene investigation
A) Charring B) Pounding C) Exhumation D) Cremation
A) Clay B) Red C) Reddish-brown D) Black
A) Takayama Test B) Barberio Test C) Phenolphthalein Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxy nucleic acid B) Deonatural acid C) Deoxyribonucleic acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) Physical Virginity B) True Physical Virginity C) False Physical Virginity D) Demi-Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance.
A) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. B) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. C) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. D) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian.
A) Extenuation B) Pretense of Physical Evidence C) Mutt and Jeff D) Shifting the Blame
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Associative Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. B) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. C) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. D) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement.
A) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. B) That it is material and relevant to the case. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) Methods of shadowing. B) How to conduct surveillance of a place. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) How to detect foot surveillance
A) Mercenary Informant B) Double-Crosser Informant C) Anonymous Informant D) Legitimate Informant
A) Tracing Evidence B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Corpus Delicti D) Associative Evidence
A) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. B) Release the crime scene to the property owner. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene.
A) Rectangular Coordinates Method B) Baseline Method C) Compass Point Method D) Triangulation Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Direct Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Confession B) Admission C) Dying Declaration D) Excited Utterance
A) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. D) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch.
A) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. D) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview.
A) Comply with local traffic regulations. B) Ensure they reach their destination on time. C) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. D) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Corpus Delicti B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Modus Operandi D) Miranda Doctrine
A) Made in the presence of the victim's family. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. B) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. C) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. D) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies.
A) Scale B) Legend C) Title D) Compass Direction (North)
A) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. B) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. C) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. D) A search method for large, open areas.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector.
A) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. B) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. C) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. B) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Database of modus operandi. C) File of photographic images of known criminals. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. B) The suspect is a hardened criminal. C) There is only one suspect. D) There is more than one suspect.
A) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. B) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. C) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. D) Draft the final report for the prosecutor.
A) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. B) Official police databases. C) Government records and news items. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Mark a location for a future meeting. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Dispose of incriminating evidence.
A) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. B) Anti-Wiretapping Law. C) Revised Penal Code. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) long, narrow road. B) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. C) multi-story building divided into zones. D) An approximately circular or oval open field. |