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Cevide 2 - Quiz
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Material and voluntary
B) Competent and credible
C) Relevant and competent
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Confuse the issue
B) Support witness credibility only
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Object evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Demonstrative evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The weakest form of proof
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) The highest order of evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Documentary proof
B) Statements given by witnesses under oath
C) Objects presented to the court
D) Circumstantial demonstration
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Submission of any copy
B) Presentation of the original document
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Oral testimony of document contents
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Written contracts
B) Testimonies only
C) Oral contracts
D) Electronic communications
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Oral declarations
B) Witness testimony
C) Written documents presented in court
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Hearsay statements are valid
B) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
C) Confidential evidence is protected
D) Admissions apply to all
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Silence is never an admission
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Avoid cross-examination
B) Withhold testimony
C) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
D) Prove innocence by silence
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Common interest
C) Confidentiality and public policy
D) Mutual understanding
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if both spouses testify
B) Only if requested by prosecution
C) Only before marriage
D) During or after marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Only while the marriage subsists
B) Before marriage
C) After marriage
D) By any relative
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Parents from testifying against neighbors
B) A child from testifying against parents
C) Teachers from testifying
D) Priests from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Public confessions
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Prevent medical records in court
B) Protect hospital reputation
C) Disallow expert witnesses
D) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Original document rule
C) Competency rule
D) Parol rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Relevant and properly identified
B) Cited by counsel
C) Emotional
D) Based on speculation
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
B) Written by another person
C) Made after survival
D) Made casually before death
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Unavailable
B) Authorized by both parties
C) Neutral and quiet
D) Competent and legally qualified
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
C) Can read and write
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Testimony about another’s guilt
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Declaration against interest
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Statement made to police
B) Admission made in court pleadings
C) Out-of-court statement
D) Admission made in casual conversation
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Testimony made in trial
C) Confession under oath
D) Admission made out of court
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Any legally qualified person to testify
B) No minors as witnesses
C) Only victims to testify
D) Only police officers to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have personal knowledge
B) They have special knowledge or skill
C) They are relatives
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Source reliability only
B) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
C) Age of samples
D) Court preference
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Made under torture
C) Oral or informal
D) Forced
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Quantity of witnesses
B) Public opinion
C) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
D) Strength of documents
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Always admissible
C) Based on rumor
D) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Shorten the trial
B) Admit all statements
C) Support confessions
D) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Character evidence
B) Cross-examination
C) Dying declaration
D) Opinion testimony
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Privileged declaration
B) Judicial admission
C) Confession
D) Extra-judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Acceptable
B) Considered documentary evidence
C) Valid if recorded
D) Inadmissible
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Support credibility
B) Indicate intent
C) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Witness credibility
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Speedy trial
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
B) Refuses to testify
C) Lies under oath
D) Lacks knowledge
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The witness
B) The defense
C) The judge
D) The prosecution
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Probable cause
B) Substantial evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Confession
B) Dying Declaration
C) Admission
D) Dying Inside to Hold you
E) Judicial declaration
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Witness
B) Expert
C) Judge Nono
D) Judge
E) Complainant
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Competency
B) Reliability
C) Credibility
D) Intelligence
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Priest Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Client-Lawyer Privilege
C) Professional Privilege
D) Parental Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Doctor-Patient Privilege
B) Spiritual Privilege
C) Spousal Privilege
D) Teacher-Student Privilege
E) Priest-Penitent Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
B) Exa Sec To
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
E) Hearsay Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Dying against declaration
B) Parol rule evidence
C) Opinion Rule
D) Declaration Against Interest
E) Admission by Silence
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Depende
B) No comback
C) Yes comback
D) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
E) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) A company's internal memo
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is only used to impeach a witness.
B) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
C) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
D) It is always inadmissible in court.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
B) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
C) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
D) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
B) They are never admissible in court.
C) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) All of the above
D) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
C) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
D) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
B) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
C) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
C) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
D) Internal memos of a private company.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of businesses registered with the government.
B) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A list of items sold in a store.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A grocery list kept in personal records
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A handwritten letter between two individuals
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A private diary entry
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Personal letters exchanged between friends
C) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
D) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
E) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
B) notary public
C) Only the document creator
D) The court judge
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Notarization of the document by an attorney
B) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
C) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was sent by registered mail
D) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
E) It was found in a government office
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been lost for more than 30 years
B) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It has been altered in any way
E) It was signed by an unknown individual
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Any witness who has seen the person write before
B) A certified handwriting analyst
C) Only the person whose handwriting it is
D) Any witness who has seen the person write before
E) A government official
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Having read similar documents before
B) Seeing the person write only once
C) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
E) Inadmissible unless notarized
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
E) Verified by at least two witnesses
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) None of the above
C) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
D) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
E) The copy is a public document
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) Any individual who has access to the document
C)   The head of a department
D) A private individual designated by the parties involved
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) Only with permission from the president
C) When the office is undergoing renovations
D) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
E) For personal inspection by the document owner
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any individual who owns the document
B) An authorized public official
C) Any court officer
D) A private notary
E) An authorized public official
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To make it available for historical records
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
D) To allow easy access to the public
E) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
E) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
B) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
E) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
E) By prioritizing the first provision.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The court should disregard both provisions.
B) The particular provisions should always prevail.
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
E) The general provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) Without regard to any external factors.
B) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
C) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
D) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their primary and general meaning only.
B) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
E) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms
B) The term that appears first.
C) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
D) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
E) The latter of the two terms.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
C) When both parties request an interpreter.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
E) When it is written in ordinary language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Existence, termination, power, and loss
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Investigations, trials, and appeals
B) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Real evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a forensic expert's analysis
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By comparing it to other photographs
D) By a witness who can identify the subject
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Assessing the credibility of a witness
B) Determining the admissibility of evidence
C) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To examine the crime scene
B) To verify the authenticity of evidence
C) To determine the cause of death
D) To identify the accused
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