A) Unity of Command B) Flexibility C) Evidence-Based Planning D) Centralization
A) Contingency Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Operational Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Evaluation B) Control C) Direction D) Adaptability
A) Balanced Scorecard B) Performance Governance System (PGS) C) Situational Leadership Model D) Quality Management System
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Following the same route daily C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Tactical B) Contingency C) Operational D) Strategic
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Command authority C) Political alignment D) Organizational participation
A) Policy Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Through strict adherence to hierarchy B) Through centralized command only C) Through punitive measures for non-performance D) Through measurable and transparent objectives
A) Contingency Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Command B) Coordination C) Control D) Motivation
A) Decentralization B) Coordination C) Secrecy D) Segregation
A) Centralized supervision B) Individual performance only C) Authoritarian leadership D) Participative governance
A) Record disciplinary actions B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Measure organizational and individual performance D) Identify police misconduct
A) Operations remain classified B) Plans are fixed and unchangeable C) Only top officers make revisions D) Continuous improvement and adaptation
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Tactical plans focus on national objectives C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions
A) Operational Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Deterrence B) Accountability C) Transformation D) Partnership
A) It measures output and transparency B) It limits officer discretion C) It focuses only on leadership goals D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Procedural authority B) Policy compliance C) Personnel control D) Strategic alignment
A) Spatial regression B) Statistical modeling C) Non-graphical indicator D) Thematic mapping
A) Social crime mapping B) Geographic profiling C) Random patrols D) Predictive policing
A) Spatial regression B) Trend analysis C) Hotspot analysis D) Thematic mapping
A) Thematic B) Graphic regression C) Topographic D) Choropleth
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Forecasting public celebrations D) Determining police salaries
A) Strategic redeployment B) Tactical crime mapping C) Spatial diffusion D) Randomized control patrol
A) It replaces human intelligence B) It allows speculative conclusions C) It focuses solely on statistical data D) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions
A) Spatial regression B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Temporal analysis D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only B) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations C) Both measure community satisfaction D) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences
A) Predictive simulation B) Thematic analysis C) Spatial mapping D) Non-graphical indicators
A) Situational correlation B) Area mapping C) Spatial regression D) Environmental regression
A) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends B) It emphasizes minor crimes only C) It eliminates the need for statistics D) It only works for rural areas
A) Static hotspot map B) Dynamic time-series map C) Isoline map D) Non-graphical table
A) Produce non-graphical outputs B) Identify policy gaps C) Measure administrative efficiency D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Predictive analytics B) Reactive patrol C) Manual charting D) Routine mapping
A) Resource allocation B) Situation analysis C) Implementation D) Feedback
A) Tactical Deployment Plan B) Patrol Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Hierarchical supervision D) Operational planning
A) NBI B) BID C) PCG D) PNP
A) Implementation B) Risk assessment C) Situation analysis D) Resource control
A) Evaluation phase B) Initial planning C) Prevention D) Coordination
A) Coordination B) Unity of Direction C) Unity of Command D) Chain of Command
A) Strategic B) Operational C) Contingency D) Tactical
A) Command centralization B) Intelligence gathering C) Partnership policing D) Reactive operations
A) Inter-agency synergy B) Routine investigation C) Legal enforcement D) Jurisdictional independence
A) Proportionality B) Security prioritization C) Safety first D) Efficiency
A) Communication B) Hierarchical control C) Inter-sectoral coordination D) Command isolation
A) Control B) Revision C) Implementation D) Improvement
A) Narrow coordination B) Adaptive planning C) Standardized procedure D) Decentralized control
A) Objective formulation B) Tactical programming C) Strategic alignment D) Policy integration
A) Evaluation B) Control C) Testing D) Implementation
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Unified command and coordination D) Duplication of effort
A) Chain of command B) Specialization C) Task delegation D) Coordination and synchronization
A) To assign blame for failures B) To evaluate performance and identify gaps C) To celebrate success D) To finalize reports only
A) Command instruction B) Coordination plan C) Information gathering D) Crisis management
A) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities B) To deter offenders by stricter laws C) To increase police presence only D) To rely on surveillance alone
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Target hardening C) Natural surveillance D) Maintenance
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime C) It records officer attendance D) It replaces human patrols
A) Open public plazas B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Dark alleys D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Formal control B) Territorial reinforcement C) Natural surveillance D) Target hardening
A) Data-driven deployment B) Human-based observation C) Random patrol D) Traditional mapping
A) Static mapping B) Manual plotting C) Reactive mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Access control B) Target hardening C) Natural surveillance D) Maintenance
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Eliminating open areas C) Reducing property lines D) Increasing police checkpoints
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Close all schools temporarily C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Conduct random arrests
A) It measures public satisfaction B) It eliminates paperwork C) It focuses only on offender data D) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow
A) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety B) Expand commercial property C) Limit police activity D) Reduce government spending
A) Avoid manual investigation B) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders C) Reduce manpower D) Replace detectives
A) Crime prevention through design B) Situational design C) Environmental aesthetics D) Target hardening
A) Political decision-making B) Predictive precision C) Administrative filing D) Officer scheduling
A) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making B) Eliminating all crimes C) Reducing community involvement D) Replacing leadership functions
A) Well-lit open spaces B) Isolated parking areas C) Narrow blind streets D) Hidden alleys
A) Bureaucratic control B) Economic zoning C) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence D) Population balance
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Population profiling C) Statistical sampling D) Demographic analysis
A) Randomized response strategy B) Traditional guesswork C) Manual data analysis D) Application of data-informed operational planning
A) Probable cause B) Equal protection C) Double jeopardy D) Due process
A) Right to privacy B) Right to confrontation C) Right to counsel D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree B) Stop and Frisk C) Plain View Doctrine D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Probable Cause Doctrine D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Warrant Clause C) Rule on Evidence D) Rule on Custodial Investigation
A) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) B) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) C) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) D) RA 6975 (DILG Act)
A) Media exposure B) The suspect’s immediate interrogation C) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement D) Search of residence
A) Right to privacy B) Right to bail C) Right to confrontation D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It targets political groups B) It involves random vehicle searches C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It is done secretly
A) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine B) In flagrante delicto C) Consent Search Doctrine D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Preventive detention B) Due process violation C) Civil liability D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to free travel B) The right to speedy trial C) The right to counsel D) The right against unlawful search and seizure
A) Right to bail B) Right to due process C) Right to privacy D) Right against self-incrimination
A) A barangay official B) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice C) A witness D) The arresting officer’s superior
A) Lawful exercise of police power B) Proportionality C) Separation of powers D) Due process
A) Certiorari B) Injunction C) Habeas Corpus D) Quo Warranto
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 6975 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 8551
A) Plain view rule B) Probable cause principle C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Reasonable necessity of means employed
A) It is inadmissible due to rights violation B) It can be used as circumstantial evidence C) It is valid if the officer signs it D) It is admissible if recorded
A) Right to silence B) Freedom of speech and expression C) Right to privacy D) Right to travel
A) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 B) Miranda doctrine C) Exclusionary rule D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) RA 7438 B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) RA 8551 D) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article II, Section 1 B) Article VI, Section 11 C) Article III, Section 12 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Police media cooperation B) Public display for transparency C) Summary publicity for deterrence D) Confidentiality and respect for due process |