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Criminal Procedure and Court Testimony ALPHA 1
Contributed by: .
(Original author: Ninge)
  • 1. The relevance of the study of practice court is to criminology is.
A) All of the above
B) Familiarization with court personnel and legal forms
C) Acquaintance with court room conduct and trial procedures
D) Train criminologist how to testify effectively and properly
  • 2. The usual role of police officers during judicial proceedings.
A) To protect the accused
B) To protect the judge
C) To serve as a witness
D) To act as an expert witness
  • 3. This occurs when the judge enters the court room and the clerk or bailiff announces his presence.
A) Order of trial
B) Roll call of cases
C) Call to order
D) Arraignment
  • 4. When the call to order has been undertaken, it is an indication that.
A) All must rise
B) All must be silent
C) The court is in session
D) All of the above
  • 5. Which among the following is not a court personnel?
A) Clerk of court
B) Stenographer
C) Policeman
D) Interpreter
  • 6. What is the main purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To set police salaries
B) To govern criminal proceedings
C) To regulate contracts
D) To establish crimes
  • 7. The prosecutor in a criminal case would usually utter in roll call.
A) "For the plaintiff your honor, ready"
B) "For the people your honor, ready"
C) "For the accused your honor, ready"
D) "For the state your honor, ready"
  • 8. It is a list of cases usually placed or posted on the door of a trial court.
A) All of these
B) Roll call of cases
C) Calendar
D) Call to order
  • 9. Trials and court sessions are usually.
A) Exclusive to the litigants and their relatives
B) Exclusive for the litigants
C) Open to the public
D) Open to the members of the bar
  • 10. Who generally issues an arrest warrant?
A) Police officer
B) Judge
C) Witness
D) Prosecutor
  • 11. Before giving his testimony the witness must.
A) Must pray for truthful answers
B) Must pledge to tell the truth
C) Undertake the witness oath
D) Must sign his affidavit
  • 12. A procedure wherein the case number is called and the litigants represented by counsel should signify their readiness for trial.
A) Witness oath
B) Roll call of cases
C) Marking of exhibits
D) Call to order
  • 13. Primary duty of the prosecutor.
A) To see to it that due process is observed
B) To secure justice
C) To acquit the accused
D) To prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt
  • 14. What does bail primarily help secure?
A) Payment of court salaries
B) Automatic acquittal
C) Dismissal of charges
D) Appearance of the accused in court
  • 15. Another lawyer hired by the victim is designated as.
A) Counsel for the defense
B) Private prosecutor
C) Public prosecutor
D) Counsel de officio
  • 16. When an objection has been made to the testimony of the witness and the judge orders that it be sustained, the witness.
A) Is instructed to sit down
B) Is instructed to get out of the witness stand
C) Is not allowed to answer the question directed by counsel
D) Is allowed to continue and answer
  • 17. The question, "when did you first meet the accused" is an example of a.
A) Re-direct question
B) Cross examination
C) Direct examination
D) Re-cross examination
  • 18. After the evidence of the defense is presented, the next step for the order of trial is.
A) Sur-rebuttal evidence
B) Cross examination
C) Rebuttal evidence
D) Evidence for the prosecution
  • 19. It is usually used to test the credibility of the witness and leading questions may be allowed.
A) Direct examination
B) Cross examination
C) Re-direct examination
D) Re-cross examination
  • 20. It is used to establish facts wherein leading questions are not allowed.
A) Direct examination
B) Re-cross examination
C) Re-direct examination
D) Cross examination
  • 21. A person named and appointed by the court to defend an absentee defendant in suit which the appointment is made.
A) Counsel de officio
B) Attorney ad Hoc
C) Attorney of record
D) Attorney at law
  • 22. Who represents the State in prosecuting a criminal case?.
A) Court stenographer
B) Court interpreter
C) Public prosecutor
D) Defense counsel
  • 23. The counsel on either side of the litigated action who is charges with the principal management and direction of party's case.
A) Attorney in fact
B) House counsel
C) Attorney ad Hoc
D) Lead Counsel
  • 24. Literally it means a friend of the court, a person with strong interest in or views on the subject matter of an action but not a party to it.
A) Counsel de officio
B) Amicus Curiae
C) House counsel
D) Attorney in fact
  • 25. What is the function of a defense lawyer?
A) To issue warrants
B) To protect the accused's legal rights
C) To decide the verdict
D) To sentence the accused
  • 26. A case involving murder is filed in the Municipal Trial Court due to a clerk’s error. As the judge, what should you do?
A) Forward to the Court of Appeals
B) Transfer to the Regional Trial Court
C) Dismiss for lack of jurisdiction
D) Proceed with trial to avoid delay
  • 27. What is the presumption of innocence?
A) Every accused is automatically released
B) The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty
C) The accused must prove guilt
D) The complainant is always correct
  • 28. A barangay captain faces a complaint for falsification of a public document. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 29. What is the purpose of a preliminary investigation?
A) To determine whether there is sufficient ground to hold the respondent for trial
B) To conduct cross-examination at trial
C) To impose imprisonment
D) To decide the final verdict
  • 30. What is a subpoena?
A) A search warrant
B) A legal order requiring a person to appear or produce documents
C) An arrest record
D) A final judgment
  • 31. What is a search warrant?
A) A notice of appeal
B) A witness statement
C) An order to convict
D) A judicial order authorizing a search under specified conditions
  • 32. What is the purpose of a warrant of arrest?
A) To acquit an accused
B) To authorize the arrest of a person
C) To dismiss a complaint
D) To release seized evidence
  • 33. What is a plea of guilty?
A) Admission of guilt to the charge
B) Appeal against conviction
C) Request for bail
D) Denial of the charge
  • 34. An appeal from the MTC in a criminal case should be filed before.
A) Supreme Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) RTC
D) Court of Appeals
  • 35. What is the purpose of a trial?
A) To determine police promotions
B) To replace the complaint
C) To evaluate evidence and determine the case
D) To guarantee conviction
  • 36. When a juvenile offender is charged with robbery with homicide, where must the case be filed?
A) MTC
B) Juvenile Justice Board
C) Family Court (RTC branch)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 37. What is the main purpose of witness testimony?
A) To provide relevant information under oath
B) To impose punishment
C) To guarantee acquittal
D) To replace the judge
  • 38. What does an oath require from a witness?
A) A commitment to tell the truth
B) A promise to avoid all questions
C) A promise to support the prosecutor
D) An agreement to convict the accused
  • 39. A case for estafa involves ₱1.9 million. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) RTC
B) CA
C) MTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 40. What is perjury?
A) Refusing a private invitation
B) Making a willfully false statement under oath in circumstances covered by law
C) Requesting legal counsel
D) Filing a lawful appeal
  • 41. The jurisdiction of courts is determined by.
A) Law at the time of filing
B) Supreme Court circulars
C) Nature of the offense
D) Both Law at the time of filing and Nature of the offense
  • 42. What is hearsay evidence generally?
A) Evidence personally observed by the witness
B) A document authenticated in court
C) An out-of-court statement offered to prove the truth of what it asserts, subject to exceptions
D) Testimony based on personal knowledge
  • 43. A police officer filed a criminal complaint directly with the RTC instead of the Office of the Prosecutor. As judge, what should you do?
A) Treat the case as a private complaint
B) Order the police to file before the prosecutor’s office
C) Proceed with arraignment
D) Dismiss the case for lack of jurisdiction
  • 44. In criminal procedure, when does a case officially begin against an accused?
A) Upon issuance of subpoena
B) Upon arrest
C) Upon filing of the information in court
D) Upon filing of the complaint
  • 45. What is leading question?
A) A question requiring a written answer
B) A question without relevance
C) A question asked only by a judge
D) A question that suggests the answer
  • 46. The essence of criminal procedure is.
A) To secure justice and due process
B) To favor the accused
C) To protect state power
D) To convict the guilty
  • 47. When the prosecutor files an information without preliminary investigation in a required case, what right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right to bail
C) Right to counsel
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 48. Which of the following is not a purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To ensure justice is done
B) To secure the conviction of the guilty
C) To provide a fair trial
D) To protect the rights of the accused
  • 49. In criminal procedure, the rule of prospective application of procedural laws means.
A) They affect substantive rights
B) They can be retroactive if favorable to accused
C) They can cure past errors
D) Laws apply only to future cases
  • 50. Who rules on objections during trial?
A) Arresting officer
B) Court reporter
C) Complainant
D) Judge
  • 51. What is an exhibit in court?
A) A witness's personal opinion only
B) An item or document offered as evidence
C) A court employee
D) A type of sentence
  • 52. A criminal case was filed against two accused. One died before arraignment. What should the court do?
A) Dismiss as to the deceased accused
B) Suspend proceedings
C) Continue case and note death after trial
D) Proceed against bothB.
  • 53. The doctrine of “judicial notice” allows a court to.
A) Admit evidence automatically
B) Apply foreign laws
C) Take knowledge of facts without proof
D) Require expert testimony
  • 54. A motion to dismiss based on lack of probable cause was filed after arraignment. What rule applies?
A) Waived right
B) Must be resolved immediately
C) Filed at any time
D) Converted to demurrer to evidence
  • 55. What is the purpose of an evidence marking?
A) To dismiss a charge
B) To declare guilt
C) To replace authentication
D) To identify an item or document for the proceedings
  • 56. What is the best description of “due process” in criminal procedure?
A) Opportunity to be heard
B) Conviction after trial
C) Access to counsel
D) Speedy resolution
  • 57. A case was filed for slight physical injuries. The offended party and accused later settled amicably. What should the court do?
A) Proceed to trial
B) Refer to barangay for conciliation
C) Acquit automatically
D) Dismiss since it’s a private offense
  • 58. A criminal procedure rule that allows an accused to admit guilt for a lesser offense is known as.
A) Compromise
B) Conditional pardon
C) Plea bargaining
D) Mitigating admission
  • 59. The accused is charged for murder but information states no qualifying circumstance. The court convicts for homicide. This shows.
A) Application of variance doctrine
B) Judicial discretion
C) Amendment after verdict
D) Violation of due process
  • 60. What is authentication of evidence?
A) Hiding evidence from the court
B) Destroying evidence
C) Establishing that evidence is what it is claimed to be
D) Automatically admitting every document
  • 61. A confession was signed by an accused without counsel. What is the effect?
A) Valid if signed before police
B) Admissible if notarized
C) Inadmissible as violation of rights
D) Valid because voluntarily signed
  • 62. The accused wants to defend himself personally instead of through a lawyer. The court should.
A) Require standby counsel
B) Deny it outright
C) Allow it if he knowingly waives counsel
D) Proceed with appointed counsel
  • 63. When the court prevents an accused from presenting evidence for the defense, this violates.
A) Right to speedy trial
B) Right to due process
C) Right to remain silent
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 64. An accused was detained for 10 years without trial. This constitutes a violation of.
A) Right to due process
B) Habeas corpus rule
C) Right to equal protection
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 65. What is the chain of custody?
A) The process of sentencing
B) The documented handling and transfer of evidence
C) The list of court employees
D) The schedule of hearings
  • 66. A trial proceeds despite absence of counsel for the accused. The conviction will be.
A) Void for violation of constitutional rights
B) Suspended pending appeal
C) Valid if accused agreed
D) Valid if evidence strong
  • 67. Why is chain of custody important?
A) It replaces witness testimony
B) It eliminates the need for laboratory testing
C) It helps establish the identity and integrity of evidence
D) It guarantees conviction
  • 68. If a public trial endangers witnesses, the court may.
A) Proceed publicly as mandated
B) Seal all records permanently
C) Conduct in-camera trial with justification
D) Suspend proceedings
  • 69. What does reasonable doubt mean?
A) Any imaginary possibility
B) A doubt based on reason and evidence, not mere speculation
C) Absolute certainty is required
D) Automatic proof of innocence
  • 70. An accused was acquitted but later re-arrested for the same offense under a different case number. This violates.
A) Equal protection
B) Due process
C) Double jeopardy
D) Speedy trial
  • 71. What is a conviction?
A) A subpoena
B) A judgment finding the accused guilty
C) A dismissal of every complaint
D) A witness affidavit
  • 72. The prosecution presents evidence not included in the information. The defense objects. What should the court do?
A) Order amendment
B) Allow if favorable to accused
C) Reject for being beyond the charge
D) Admit for completeness
  • 73. What is an appeal?
A) A preliminary investigation
B) A witness oath
C) An arrest without a warrant
D) A request for review of a decision by a higher court
  • 74. The defense lawyer was asleep during crucial testimony. This results in.
A) No effect if evidence strong
B) Waiver of cross-examination
C) Contempt of court only
D) Mistrial and violation of right to effective counsel
  • 75. The right to bail ceases when.
A) Bail bond expires
B) Evidence of guilt is strong in a capital offense
C) Trial is delayed
D) Case is appealed
  • 76. What is a judgment?
A) The court's decision resolving the case or an issue
B) A police interview
C) A search of a residence
D) A witness's guess
  • 77. Police officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant for an alleged theft committed two days earlier. The arrest is.
A) Valid hot pursuit
B) Valid if suspect admits guilt
C) Invalid for lack of immediate pursuit
D) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 78. Police saw a man holding a gun in a dark alley and arrested him. The arrest is valid under.
A) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Administrative arrest
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Citizen’s arrest
  • 79. A warrantless arrest made by a private citizen of a fleeing robber is valid when.
A) He has personal suspicion
B) It occurs at night
C) Crime was committed in his presence
D) The robber is described by police
  • 80. Search of a house based only on verbal order of police chief is.
A) Valid if consented to
B) Invalid and violates constitutional rights
C) Valid under urgency
D) Allowed during curfew
  • 81. Seized evidence during an unlawful search is admissible only if.
A) Evidence is crucial
B) Accused is guilty
C) Accused waives objection
D) None of the above
  • 82. The exclusionary rule states that.
A) Only confessions need to be excluded
B) Illegally obtained evidence must be excluded
C) All confessions are admissible
D) All evidence is admissible
  • 83. What is a stipulation of facts?
A) A judge's personal opinion
B) A witness's rumor
C) An agreement by the parties on certain facts
D) An arrest warrant
  • 84. A search warrant that fails to particularly describe the items to be seized is.
A) Valid if items are criminal in nature
B) Valid if witness testified
C) Void for generality
D) Valid if supported by probable cause
  • 85. The right violated when a home is entered without a warrant or consent is.
A) Right to counsel
B) None
C) Right to privacy only
D) Right against unreasonable searches
  • 86. A warrantless arrest based solely on anonymous text messages is.
A) Valid for probable cause
B) Valid if confirmed later
C) Allowed under “Stop and Frisk”
D) Invalid for lack of personal knowledge
  • 87. A police officer lawfully arrested a drug suspect and searched his pockets. The search is.
A) Needs warrant
B) Requires written consent
C) Unreasonable
D) Valid as incidental to arrest
  • 88. A warrant issued by an unauthorized judge is.
A) Valid if executed
B) Irregular but valid
C) Curable by execution
D) Void and inadmissible
  • 89. A search warrant must be issued upon.
A) Mere suspicion
B) Police recommendation
C) Anonymous report
D) Probable cause personally determined by the judge
  • 90. A police officer searched a cellphone without a warrant. The search is valid only if.
A) Consent was freely given
B) Phone is expensive
C) Owner was arrested
D) Officer suspects drug use
  • 91. A suspect arrested under hot pursuit was tortured for confession. What rule applies?
A) Exclusionary rule on coerced confessions
B) Res gestae
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Stop and frisk rule
  • 92. What should a witness do when they do not understand a question?
A) Guess the answer
B) Remain silent forever
C) Ask for clarification
D) Change the subject
  • 93. When is a preliminary investigation mandatory?
A) Only for capital offenses
B) For all criminal cases
C) Optional at prosecutor’s discretion
D) When offense is punishable by at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment
  • 94. What is personal knowledge in testimony?
A) Information read from an unrelated document
B) Information invented by counsel
C) Information learned only from rumors
D) Knowledge gained through the witness's own senses or experiences
  • 95. If a complaint is filed directly in court without barangay conciliation when required, the case should be.
A) Proceeded with immediately
B) Dismissed for lack of cause of action
C) Suspended until conciliation
D) Referred to prosecutor
  • 96. Which case is not covered by the Barangay Justice System?
A) Slight physical injuries
B) Grave coercion between same barangay residents
C) Oral defamation
D) Murder
  • 97. The barangay settlement has the same effect as.
A) Police blotter
B) Plea bargain
C) Recommendation
D) Judgment of the court
  • 98. What is an affidavit?
A) A written statement sworn or affirmed before an authorized person
B) A final court judgment
C) An oral objection
D) An arrest warrant
  • 99. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to.
A) Convict the guilty
B) Collect evidence
C) Determine probable cause before trial
D) Serve as trial substitute
  • 100. When an inquest prosecutor finds illegal arrest, he must.
A) Require affidavit
B) Refer to court
C) Order immediate release
D) File case anyway
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