A) PNP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BFP
A) BFP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BJMP
A) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Defend the accused in criminal cases D) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court B) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) NBI B) PNP C) BuCor D) BJMP
A) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases B) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures C) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement D) Only the rich can access fair trials
A) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint B) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence C) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport D) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge
A) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain at home during investigation D) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
A) Sharing opinions online about political issues B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Expressing religious publicly D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
A) Writ of Mandamus B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Amparo D) Writ of Prohibition
A) Prospectivity B) Extraterritoriality C) Territoriality D) Generality
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is done by accident C) The act is performed with deliberate intent D) The act is done without consent
A) Complex crime B) Continuing crime C) Impossible crime D) Frustrated felony
A) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it D) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime
A) Instigation B) Conspiracy C) Proposal D) Provocation
A) The offender already begins executing does not agree B) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others C) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree D) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
A) Accomplice B) Instigator C) Accessory D) Principal
A) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony B) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts C) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution D) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced
A) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro B) The penalty is fine only C) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months D) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal
A) Frustrated B) Attempted C) Impossible D) Consummated
A) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong B) Insanity C) M(below 15 years old)inority D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Criminally liable as an accomplice B) Exempt from criminal liability C) Liable as an accessory D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Aggravating circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Alternative circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Aggravating circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Exempting circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Delay of trial B) Amnesty granted by the government C) Escaped of the accused D) Filling of an appeal
A) It transfers liability to the heirs B) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability C) It extinguishes only civil liability D) It suspends the criminal liability
A) It is reduced but not removed B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction C) It becomes extinguished D) It is suspended until review
A) Service of sentence B) Death of the offender C) Prescription of crime D) Conditional pardon
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission C) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment D) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) infanticide
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Absence of weapon used C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing with cruelty D) Killing by means of poison
A) Murder B) Infanticide C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Abortion B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse B) The victim is over 18 and married C) There is consent and the woman is of legal age D) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation
A) The injury requires no medical attention B) The injury causes death C) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days D) The injury heals immediately
A) Less serious physical injuries B) Slight physical injuries C) Serious physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Reckless imprudence B) Illegal discharge of firearm C) Attempted homicide D) Alarm and scandal
A) Theft is committed only by strangers B) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not C) Robbery requires that the property be of high value D) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
A) Brigandage B) Estafa C) Robbery in band D) Qualified theft
A) Taking property without violence B) Damaging property with intent to annoy C) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit D) Using force to steal from another
A) Estafa B) Malicious Mischief C) Grave Threats D) Robbery
A) Grave coercion B) Unlawful arrest C) Light coercion D) Serious illegal detention
A) Estafa B) Unlawful arrest C) Grave coercion D) Grave threats
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person to secure testimony C) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. B) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. C) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities B) Illegal search C) Unlawful arrest D) Arbitrary detention
A) Malversation of funds B) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance C) Direct bribery D) Infidelity in the custody of documents
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. D) Enter residences only with a valid warrant
A) An oral statement attacking a person's character. B) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. C) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. D) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing.
A) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. B) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. C) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. D) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor.
A) Direct assault B) Slander by deed C) Simple slander D) Intriguing against honor
A) Both require consent from the offender's parents. B) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. C) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. D) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can.
A) Illegal marriage B) Bigamy C) Adultery D) Concubinage
A) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. B) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. C) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. D) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities.
A) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution B) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit C) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies D) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad
A) Armed rebellion by military officers B) Criticizing the government on social media C) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Physical injuries only B) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries C) Frustrated homicide D) Grave coercion
A) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. B) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. C) A store owner posts a sale announcement. D) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street.
A) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law B) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act
A) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene B) The accused posting a confession online C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) A witness describing the suspect's face
A) Fingerprints matched in a database B) Weapons recovered during the investigation C) DNA samples gathered from the victim D) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
A) CCTV footage of the incident B) Knife left by the suspect C) Eyewitness pointing at the accused D) Signed contract presented in court
A) Demonstrative evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Based on personal beliefs B) Accepted by the witness C) Obtained from a private source D) Material and competent
A) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search B) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect C) Evidence authenticated by expert witness D) Evidence with proper search warrant
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Res Gestae Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Judicial Notice B) Materiality C) Relevance D) Best Evidence
A) Documentary evidence B) Circumstantial evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Judicially noticed facts
A) Chain of custody B) Parol evidence C) Hearsay rule D) Opinion rule
A) Only after the judgment is issued B) Immediately after the pre-trial C) Anytime during arraignment D) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Write a letter to the judge later C) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds D) File a motion after the case is finished
A) That it came from a government agency only B) The popularity of the person who wrote it C) That it has been posted online D) Its authenticity and relevance
A) Hearsay Rule B) Parol Evidence Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed D) Is based entirely on hearsay
A) Clear and convincing evidence B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt C) Substantial evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) B) Court of Appeals C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Sandiganbayan
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Regional Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) Regional Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court C) Court of Appeals D) Sandiganbayan
A) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. C) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. D) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases.
A) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. B) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. C) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. D) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties.
A) The right to set the schedule of hearings. B) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. C) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. C) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. D) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right to due process of law C) Right against double jeopardy D) Right against self-incrimination
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. D) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant.
A) Search incident to a lawful arrest. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. B) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. D) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
A) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. B) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. C) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. D) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip.
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine.
A) Inquest proceeding B) Trial proper C) Preliminary investigation D) Arraignment
A) A case where one party is a corporation. B) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. C) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. D) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua.
A) Certificate of Appearance B) Certificate of Non-Participation C) Certificate of Compliance D) Certification to File Action
A) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. D) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail.
A) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. B) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. C) Dismiss the case automatically. D) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused.
A) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. B) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. C) To record the plea of the accused. D) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
A) Motion for new trial B) Motion for reconsideration C) Motion to quash D) Demurrer to evidence
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. B) Continue the questioning until the child answers. C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. |