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Meiosis - Quiz
Contributed by: Morris
  • 1. What is the term for the normal separation of chromosomes in meiosis I or sister chromatids in meiosis II?
A) Segregation
B) Disjunction
C) Aneuploidy
D) Nondisjunction
  • 2. Nondisjunction can occur during which of the following?
A) Only meiosis I
B) Only mitosis
C) Meiosis I, meiosis II, or mitosis
D) Only meiosis II
  • 3. Which syndrome is associated with a trisomy of chromosome 21?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Edwards syndrome
C) Patau syndrome
D) Down syndrome
  • 4. What is the chromosomal composition of individuals with Turner syndrome?
A) X0
B) XYY
C) XXY
D) XXX
  • 5. Why does the probability of nondisjunction in human oocytes increase with maternal age?
A) Increased metabolic rate
B) Decrease in cytoplasm volume
C) Presumed loss of cohesin over time
D) Reduced temperature
  • 6. What acts to maintain meiotic arrest in mammalian oocytes?
A) Natriuretic peptide type C (NPPC)
B) Cyclin B
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Cdc25B
  • 7. What does cGMP inhibit to help maintain meiotic arrest?
A) Phosphodiesterase 3A (PDE3A)
B) Cyclin B
C) Protein kinase A (PKA)
D) Adenylyl cyclase
  • 8. What effect does a spike in luteinizing hormone (LH) have on oocytes?
A) Induces meiotic arrest
B) Spurs oocyte maturation
C) Activates PDE3A
D) Increases cAMP levels
  • 9. Which protein catalyzes double-stranded breaks during meiotic recombination?
A) Exo1
B) Spo11
C) Mre11
D) Sae2
  • 10. What is the primary role of the Mei2 protein in S. pombe?
A) Inhibits APC/C
B) Represses IME1
C) Major meiotic regulator
D) Activates Cdc25
  • 11. Which molecule is responsible for degrading cyclin B during anaphase I?
A) PKA
B) Anaphase-promoting complex (APC)
C) Cdc25B
D) WEE2
  • 12. Which syndrome is caused by an extra Y chromosome in males?
A) Down syndrome
B) Edwards syndrome
C) Jacobs syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome
  • 13. Which pathway results in a noncrossover product during recombination?
A) Ubiquitin-dependent pathway
B) CSF pathway
C) Double Holliday junction (dHJ) pathway
D) Synthesis-dependent strand annealing (SDSA)
  • 14. What is the clinical feature of Edwards syndrome?
A) Trisomy of chromosome 18
B) Monosomy of X chromosome
C) Trisomy of chromosome 21
D) Trisomy of chromosome 13
  • 15. What effect do LH-induced epidermal growth factor-like factors have on gap junctions?
A) Increase cGMP transport
B) Reduce cGMP transport
C) Stabilize gap junctions
D) Promote NPPC production
  • 16. Which organisms are known to undergo one-divisional meiosis?
A) Yeast and mice
B) Wood-feeding cockroaches
C) Parabasalids and oxymonads
D) Humans and primates
  • 17. In which specific host organism are flagellates that undergo one-divisional meiosis found?
A) Cryptocercus
B) Homo sapiens
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D) Mus musculus
  • 18. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?
A) 1
B) 23
C) 46
D) 10
  • 19. How much higher is the recombination rate in human females compared to males?
A) 1.2-fold
B) 2-fold
C) 3-fold
D) 1.6-fold
  • 20. Where is female recombination generally higher in humans?
A) At the nucleolus
B) At the centromeres
C) At the mid-point of the chromosome
D) At the telomeres
  • 21. Where is male recombination generally higher in humans?
A) At the kinetochores
B) At the telomeres
C) At the heterochromatin
D) At the centromeres
  • 22. What does 1 cMorgan represent in terms of recombination frequency?
A) 0.1%
B) 10%
C) 1%
D) 100%
  • 23. How many base pairs correspond to 1 cMorgan?
A) 10 million bp
B) 1 million bp
C) 1,000 bp
D) 100,000 bp
  • 24. What is the estimated number of double-strand breaks formed per meiotic cell in humans?
A) Exactly 23
B) Fewer than 50
C) Exactly 100
D) At least 200
  • 25. Approximately how many times does maternal DNA recombine on average in humans?
A) 10 times
B) 27 times
C) 42 times
D) 200 times
  • 26. Approximately how many times does paternal DNA recombine on average in humans?
A) 15 times
B) 42 times
C) 27 times
D) 50 times
  • 27. What percentage of double-strand breaks go on to produce crossovers?
A) 5–30%
B) 90–100%
C) 1–2%
D) 50–100%
  • 28. How many cross-overs are estimated to occur per human chromosome?
A) 1–2
B) 5–10
C) 20–30
D) 100–200
  • 29. What happens to kinetochore microtubules during Anaphase I?
A) They disappear
B) They stabilize
C) They shorten
D) They lengthen
  • 30. What happens to the cohesin on the chromosome arms during Anaphase I?
A) It is synthesized
B) It is protected
C) It is doubled
D) It is degraded
  • 31. Do chromosomes replicate during interkinesis?
A) Yes, once
B) Only in plant cells
C) Yes, twice
D) No
  • 32. What are the daughter cells at the end of Meiosis I called?
A) Diploid
B) Haploid
C) Tetraploid
D) Triploid
  • 33. How many cells are produced by the end of Meiosis II?
A) Four
B) Six
C) Two
D) Eight
  • 34. How is the metaphase II plate oriented compared to meiosis I?
A) Rotated by 90 degrees
B) Identical
C) Rotated by 180 degrees
D) Parallel
  • 35. What happens to sister chromatids in Anaphase II?
A) They fuse
B) They segregate
C) They replicate
D) They condense
  • 36. What are sister chromatids called after they separate in Anaphase II?
A) Sister chromosomes
B) Centrosomes
C) Homologous pairs
D) Tetrads
  • 37. What marks the end of telophase II?
A) Two daughter cells
B) One diploid cell
C) Four daughter cells
D) DNA replication
  • 38. What persists between daughter cells until the end of meiosis II?
A) Spindle fibers
B) Nuclear envelopes
C) Centrosomes
D) Cytoplasmic bridges
  • 39. What happens to non-kinetochore microtubules in Anaphase I?
A) They lengthen
B) They replicate
C) They shorten
D) They dissolve
  • 40. What happens to the nuclear envelope in Prophase II?
A) It doubles
B) It reforms
C) It disappears
D) It grows
  • 41. What does the term 'diakinesis' mean in Greek?
A) Sister separation
B) Moving through
C) Two poles
D) Crossing over
  • 42. At which stage are the four parts of tetrads first visible?
A) Anaphase I
B) Metaphase I
C) Prometaphase
D) Diakinesis
  • 43. What becomes clearly visible due to the overlapping of crossing over sites during diakinesis?
A) Cohesin complexes
B) Centrosomes
C) Nuclear membrane
D) Chiasmata
  • 44. Which of the following occurs during diakinesis?
A) Bipolar attachments dissolve
B) Nucleoli disappear
C) Cohesin is cleaved
D) Independent assortment finishes
  • 45. What structure is absent in human and mouse oocytes for producing the meiotic spindle?
A) Microtubules
B) Centrosomes
C) Kinetochores
D) Chromosomes
  • 46. How many MTOCs initially form a sphere in mouse oocytes?
A) Exactly 2
B) Over 200
C) About 40
D) Approximately 80
  • 47. What is the final shape of the spindle in mouse oocytes after MTOCs merge?
A) Spherical
B) Circular
C) Barrel shaped
D) Linear
  • 48. What structure forms around chromosomes in human oocytes during spindle assembly?
A) A kinetochore plate
B) A nuclear envelope
C) An aster
D) A centrosome
  • 49. What is the attachment of kinetochore microtubules from both poles to homologous chromosomes called?
A) Chiasmata attachment
B) Unipolar attachment
C) Bipolar attachment
D) Equatorial attachment
  • 50. What must be established in meiosis to progress to anaphase?
A) Nucleolar reformation
B) Tension
C) Centrosome alignment
D) Vesicle fusion
  • 51. Who discovered meiosis in sea urchin eggs in 1876?
A) Oscar Hertwig
B) August Weismann
C) Edouard Van Beneden
D) Thomas Hunt Morgan
  • 52. In what year did Edouard Van Beneden describe meiosis at the chromosome level?
A) 1911
B) 1883
C) 1890
D) 1876
  • 53. Who noted that two cell divisions are necessary to turn one diploid cell into four haploid cells?
A) Thomas Hunt Morgan
B) Oscar Hertwig
C) J.B. Farmer
D) August Weismann
  • 54. What organism was used by Thomas Hunt Morgan to detect crossovers in 1911?
A) Sea urchin
B) Ascaris roundworm
C) Drosophila melanogaster
D) Bacteria
  • 55. From which language is the term 'meiosis' derived?
A) Greek
B) German
C) Latin
D) French
  • 56. What is the meaning of the Greek word 'meiosis'?
A) Doubling
B) Replication
C) Division
D) Lessening
  • 57. Who changed the spelling of 'maiosis' to 'meiosis' to follow Greek transliteration conventions?
A) August Weismann
B) Flemming
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) Koernicke
  • 58. During which phase of interphase does DNA replication occur?
A) G2 phase
B) S phase
C) G1 phase
D) Prophase I
  • 59. What structure holds two identical sister chromatids together?
A) Ribosome
B) Nucleus
C) Chromosome
D) Centromere
  • 60. Which phase of the mitotic cell cycle is notably absent in meiosis?
A) G2 phase
B) G1 phase
C) S phase
D) Prophase
  • 61. What is the resting phase between meiosis I and meiosis II called?
A) G2 phase
B) Interkinesis
C) Telophase I
D) Prophase I
  • 62. What kind of cell does meiosis begin with?
A) Diploid
B) Zygote
C) Gamete
D) Haploid
  • 63. What are the two copies of each chromosome in a diploid cell called?
A) Sister chromatids
B) Spindles
C) Homologs
D) Polar bodies
  • 64. What is the term for the physical connections between homologs?
A) Binary fission
B) Spindle apparatus
C) Crossovers
D) Sister chromatids
  • 65. How many rounds of DNA replication occur between the first and second meiotic division?
A) Four
B) Two
C) None
D) One
  • 66. What are the haploid cells formed during meiosis in some plants and fungi called?
A) Gametes
B) Spores
C) Polar bodies
D) Ovum
  • 67. Which organism is mentioned as reproducing via parthenogenesis?
A) Bdelloid rotifers
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
  • 68. How do bacteria generally reproduce?
A) Meiosis
B) Spore formation
C) Binary fission
D) Parthenogenesis
  • 69. What is the "sexual" process found in bacteria and archaea?
A) Binary fission
B) Mitosis
C) Meiosis
D) Horizontal gene transfer
  • 70. What is the primary function of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms?
A) Increasing the number of diploid cells
B) Producing gametes
C) Creating identical somatic cells
D) Replacing damaged tissue
  • 71. What is the term for a cell formed by the fusion of a male and female gamete?
A) Polar body
B) Zygote
C) Sperm cell
D) Ova
  • 72. What is a leading known cause of miscarriage related to meiosis?
A) Excessive recombination
B) S-phase duplication
C) Sister chromatid cohesion
D) Aneuploidy
  • 73. What process occurs during prophase I to exchange genetic information?
A) Homologous recombination
B) Chromosome deletion
C) Sister chromatid synthesis
D) Mitotic division
  • 74. What is the term for paired and replicated chromosomes consisting of four chromatids?
A) Diploids
B) Tetrads
C) Chromatin
D) Haploids
  • 75. What is another name for a bivalent?
A) Homologous pair
B) Sister chromatid
C) Tetrad
D) Haploid cell
  • 76. What does the term 'leptotene' mean in Greek?
A) Double threads
B) Paired threads
C) Thin threads
D) Thick threads
  • 77. What is the approximate distance between homologues during leptotene in mice?
A) ~100 nm
B) ~400 nm
C) ~800 nm
D) ~200 nm
  • 78. What is another name for the zygotene stage?
A) Leptonema
B) Diplonema
C) Zygonema
D) Pachynema
  • 79. What process involves the close pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene?
A) Gene conversion
B) Recombination
C) Synapsis
D) Crossing over
  • 80. What is the approximate distance between paired homologous chromosomes in zygotene?
A) ~1000 nm
B) ~100 nm
C) ~50 nm
D) ~400 nm
  • 81. What does the term 'pachytene' mean in Greek?
A) Paired threads
B) Separated threads
C) Thin threads
D) Thick threads
  • 82. At which stage are all autosomal chromosomes synapsed?
A) Pachytene
B) Diplotene
C) Leptotene
D) Zygotene
  • 83. What is the suspended state of human fetal oocytes in prophase I called?
A) Pachynema
B) Leptonema
C) Zygonema
D) Dictyotene
  • 84. Which biological domain is meiosis a fundamental characteristic of?
A) Viral organisms
B) Prokaryotic organisms
C) Bacterial organisms
D) Eukaryotic organisms
  • 85. How were amoeba historically viewed by scientists?
A) As multicellular
B) As exclusively sexual
C) As asexual
D) As viral pathogens
  • 86. According to Dacks and Rogers, what was present in the common ancestor of eukaryotes?
A) Obligate asexual reproduction
B) No genetic exchange
C) Binary fission only
D) Facultative sex
  • 87. Which organism is mentioned as having achiasmate meiosis?
A) Schizosaccharomyces pombe
B) Bombyx mori
C) Homo sapiens
D) Volvox carteri
  • 88. What is the proposed biological purpose for the informational redundancy in prophase I arrested oocytes?
A) Preventing mutation
B) Increasing chromosome number
C) Accelerating cell division
D) Repairing DNA damage
  • 89. What type of DNA damage are prophase I arrested oocytes particularly capable of repairing?
A) Chromosomal deletions
B) Double-strand breaks
C) Base pair substitutions
D) Point mutations
  • 90. What induces meiotic sex in Volvox carteri?
A) Heat shock
B) Antioxidants
C) Synaptonemal complexes
D) Hydrogen peroxide
  • 91. What chemical inhibits the induction of meiotic sex in Volvox carteri?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Antioxidants
C) Heat shock
D) Recombinational enzymes
  • 92. What is the term for the lack of crossing over during meiosis?
A) Redundant
B) Dictyate
C) Achiasmate
D) Synaptonemal
  • 93. In which life cycle is the organism diploid?
A) Diplontic
B) Sporic
C) Haplodiplontic
D) Haplontic
  • 94. In the haplontic life cycle, when does meiosis occur?
A) During gamete formation
B) During the mitotic phase
C) Pre-gametic
D) Post-zygotic
  • 95. In diplontic organisms, what are the haploid gametes produced by males called?
A) Ova
B) Spermatozoa
C) Spores
D) Zygotes
  • 96. In females, what cells undergo meiosis?
A) Oocytes
B) Follicle cells
C) Spermatogonia
D) Germinal vesicles
  • 97. What is the name for the oocyte nucleus while it is dormant?
A) Somatic shell
B) Polar body
C) Spindle
D) Germinal vesicle
  • 98. What hormone stimulates follicles to mature during the menstrual cycle?
A) FSH
B) Nanos
C) DAZL
D) Retinoic acid
  • 99. What is the long period of meiotic arrest in females called?
A) Spermatogenesis
B) Folliculogenesis
C) Dictyate stage
D) Atresia
  • 100. In males, where does meiosis occur?
A) Germinal vesicle
B) Seminiferous tubules
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Primitive kidney
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