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CDI #8 TECWRI 2 - Quiz
Contributed by: APPI
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9995
D) RA 9484
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 10175
C) RA 4200
D) RA 9995
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Cyber-sabotage
B) Data Interference
C) Illegal Access
D) Cyber-libel
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Unauthorized fishing activities
B) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
C) Stealing personal data without consent
D) Posting fake news online
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Computer system or online platform
B) Text messages
C) Personal letters
D) Radio broadcast
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Statistical raw data with identity
B) Personal information
C) Privileged information
D) Anonymous data with no identifiers
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) DICT
B) PNP-ACG
C) NBI
D) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9995
D) RA 9208
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Using another’s personal data without authority
B) Downloading pirated movies
C) Changing online photos
D) Posting insults online
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Data interference
B) System interference
C) Illegal access
D) Cyber-libel
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) All of the above
B) Private companies
C) Government agencies
D) Individuals
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
B) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
C) Tracking IP addresses
D) Using malware to crash systems
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Citizenship
B) Health information
C) Nickname
D) Age
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9165
C) RA 9262
D) RA 9775 and RA 10175
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Destroying data
B) DNS corruption
C) Using fake identity or email headers
D) Unauthorized surveillance
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) System interference
B) Computer forgery
C) Cyber fraud
D) Data interference
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) All of the above
B) Content-related offense
C) Computer-related offense
D) Device misuse
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Government databases
B) Corporate records
C) Digital files
D) Rights of data subjects
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Data retention policy
B) Data privacy officer
C) Consent for data processing
D) Unlimited free access to data
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) IT staff
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) All employees
D) CEO
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Books
B) Newspapers
C) Radio
D) Digital devices
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Bulletin boards
B) Blogs
C) Private computer files
D) Public social media posts
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Administrative offense
B) Civil offense
C) All of the above
D) Criminal offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Illegal access
B) Child pornography
C) Cyber fraud
D) Data interference
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Same penalty as principal
B) Penalty reduction
C) Administrative charge
D) No liability
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Clean Air Act
D) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Wildlife protection
B) Solid waste management
C) Air pollution control
D) Water pollution
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Air quality
B) Toxic chemicals
C) Water quality
D) Mining operations
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Clean air regulation
B) Marine wildlife
C) Hazardous waste
D) Clean water regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using bamboo traps
B) Using dynamite in fishing
C) Using nets
D) Handline fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Using fine-mesh nets
B) Handline fishing
C) Harvesting seaweeds
D) Culturing fish in ponds
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Households
B) All of the above
C) Industrial plants
D) Commercial establishments
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9003
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9003 and RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) Fisheries code
D) RA 9003
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) All of the above
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9147
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Community service
B) Fine and imprisonment
C) Fine only
D) Administrative penalty only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 9147
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 8749 and RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling aquarium fish
B) Selling domestic dogs
C) Selling endangered wildlife
D) Selling common livestock
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 8749
C) No law
D) RA 9003
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Solid Waste Management Act
B) Clean Air Act
C) Wildlife Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules of Court
B) NBI guidelines
C) Data Privacy Act
D) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Checking CCTV
B) Accessing private emails
C) Viewing public Facebook posts
D) Interviewing witnesses
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Identification of the incident
B) Threat hunting
C) Arresting suspects
D) Seizing devices
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Handwritten notes
B) Verbal descriptions
C) Random methods
D) Forensically sound procedures
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Encrypt drives
B) Prevent data alteration
C) Speed up copying
D) Delete malicious files
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Interrogation details
B) Criminal profiles
C) Police assignments
D) Evidence handling history
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Cyber Warrant
B) Judge’s certification only
C) Consent of suspect
D) Verbal permission
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Preventing data alteration
B) Arresting suspects
C) Photographing the scene
D) Packing devices
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Memory cards
B) RAM
C) Hard drives
D) USB drives
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) RAM data
B) Network connections
C) Running processes
D) Hard drive files
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data authenticity
B) Encryption
C) Data deletion
D) Network security
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) A complete bit-for-bit copy
B) Compressed folder
C) Partial copy
D) Password-protected file
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Subpoena only
B) Court warrant
C) Imminent danger
D) Executive order
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Acquired legally
B) Properly documented
C) Authenticated
D) Tampered or altered
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Preservation
B) Examination
C) Analysis
D) Collection
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Identify motives
B) Stop further damage
C) Arrest hackers
D) Erase malware
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Turned off
B) Corrupt
C) Destroyed
D) In use / powered on
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Punishment
B) Containment
C) Identification
D) Eradication
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-DI
B) SW-CL
C) SW-SI
D) SW-ARA
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Physical data
B) None
C) Content data
D) Non-content data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Home office
B) Laboratory
C) Anywhere
D) Police car
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Forensic tools
B) Social media
C) Guessing
D) Brute-force methods
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) None
B) Deleted data
C) Altered copies
D) Reports
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) All of these
B) Cellphones
C) Hard drives
D) Emails
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Lessons learned
B) Recovery
C) Eradication
D) Containment
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Court
B) Civil Code
C) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
D) Special Penal Laws
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only police
B) NGOs and citizens
C) Only government agencies
D) Only direct victims
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Family courts
B) Regular trial courts
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Labor courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) All environmental evidence
B) Seized explosives
C) Wildlife evidence
D) Water samples
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Large-scale environmental rights
B) Private contracts
C) Property disputes
D) Individuals only
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Clean Water Act
B) Clean Air Act
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DENR
B) DA
C) DOH
D) DICT
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Confiscated cages
B) Transport documents
C) Specimens
D) All of the above
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9003
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Municipality type
B) Weather condition
C) Species classification
D) Age of violator
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) No documentation needed
B) Verbal timelines
C) Scientific protocols
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) Lie detector tests
B) DNA tests
C) Laboratory tests
D) None
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) PNP EOD
B) DA
C) Bureau of Fisheries
D) DENR
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Collection only
B) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
C) Laboratory test
D) Arrest
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