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CLJ6-CPCTES - Quiz
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  • 1. A case involving qualified theft with an amount of ₱1,300,000 is filed. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) RTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) MTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 2. A city prosecutor elevates an appeal on a dismissal order of the RTC in a criminal case. Which court reviews it?
A) MTC
B) Supreme Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 3. An accused challenges the constitutionality of a search warrant issued by the RTC. Which court has authority to resolve the petition?
A) RTC
B) MTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) Supreme Court
  • 4. A barangay official is charged with violation of the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act. Which court tries the case?
A) RTC
B) Supreme Court
C) MTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 5. A civil action for damages amounting to ₱250,000 arising from a vehicular accident in a province is filed. Where should it be filed?
A) RTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) Barangay Justice System
D) MTC
  • 6. An accused petitions for bail after being charged with a capital offense. Which court determines the bail application?
A) Supreme Court
B) MTC
C) Sandiganbayan
D) RTC
  • 7. A petition for writ of amparo is filed against military personnel. Where is the proper venue?
A) MTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) Sandiganbayan
D) RTC
  • 8. A foreign corporation sues a local company for contractual disputes. Which court hears the case initially?
A) RTC
B) MTC
C) Supreme Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 9. A party seeks annulment of marriage. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) Court of Appeals
B) MTC
C) Sandiganbayan
D) RTC (Family Court)
  • 10. A motion for reconsideration of a Sandiganbayan decision is denied. Where is the next legal remedy filed?
A) MTC
B) RTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) Supreme Court
  • 11. Criminal procedure primarily governs which aspect of the justice process?
A) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law
B) Arbitration procedures
C) Administrative penalties
D) Civil litigation procedures
  • 12. The purpose of a preliminary investigation is mainly to:
A) Conduct trial
B) Determine guilt
C) Impose penalties
D) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case
  • 13. The concept of “probable cause” in criminal procedure refers to?
A) Mere suspicion
B) A prosecutor’s opinion
C) Absolute proof of guilt
D) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed
  • 14. Arraignment is the stage where the court?
A) Decides on evidence admissibility
B) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
C) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea
D) Conducts mandatory mediation
  • 15. The purpose of a warrant of arrest is to:
A) File an information
B) Place the accused under lawful custody
C) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C
D) Initiate a complaint
  • 16. Bail primarily serves to:
A) Ensure the accused appears in court
B) Guarantee an acquittal
C) Reduce the penalty upon conviction
D) Replace detention with probation
  • 17. The right to counsel during custodial investigation ensures that the accused:
A) May be tried immediately
B) Can negotiate penalties
C) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers
D) Can escape detention
  • 18. The information filed by the prosecutor must contain:
A) Proposed punishment
B) Accused’s personal opinion
C) Witness names only
D) The acts complained of and the law violated
  • 19. The exclusionary rule in criminal procedure means that:
A) All evidence is admissible
B) Witnesses may be excluded
C) Confessions are always valid
D) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible
  • 20. A motion to quash challenges the:
A) Validity of the complaint or information
B) Trial procedure
C) Judgment
D) Credibility of witnesses
  • 21. The concept of “double jeopardy” protects an accused from:
A) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal
B) Bail denial
C) Civil suits
D) Multiple fines
  • 22. During trial, the prosecution presents evidence first because:
A) Defense is always last
B) Judge instructs them
C) The State carries the burden of proof
D) Witnesses appear first
  • 23. The judgment in a criminal case must be based on:
A) Prosecutor’s opinion
B) Evidence presented and the applicable law
C) Public interest
D) Defense preference
  • 24. The execution of judgment in criminal procedure refers to:
A) Filing appeals
B) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court
C) Reviewing evidence
D) Drafting the decision
  • 25. Police officers arrested a suspect after he “acted suspiciously” but committed no overt act. Analyze the arrest.
A) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours
B) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present
C) Valid if officer believes crime might occur
D) Valid because suspicion is enough
  • 26. Officers arrest a suspect after a reliable informant claims the suspect “might transport drugs tomorrow.” Assess the legality.
A) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
B) Valid as long as informant is reliable
C) Valid if suspect previously had a record
D) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest
  • 27. A search warrant states “illegal drugs and related contraband.” Evaluate the warrant.
A) Valid because purpose is clear
B) Invalid due to lack of particularity
C) Valid if approved by a judge
D) Valid only if the search happens immediately
  • 28. Police conduct a search of a house using a warrant issued for a different address. Evaluate the action.
A) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location
B) Valid only if consent is implied
C) Valid if within the same barangay
D) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside
  • 29. During a checkpoint, officers search all closed bags inside a vehicle without probable cause. Assess the search.
A) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed
B) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized
C) Valid if the driver appears nervous
D) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches
  • 30. Officers enter a residence without a warrant because a suspect ran inside after committing theft. Analyze the entry.
A) Valid only if homeowner consents
B) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry
C) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes
D) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime
  • 31. Police arrest a suspect hours after a crime based only on a vague description from a bystander. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid if the offense is grave
B) Valid if suspect tries to flee
C) Valid because it is still hot pursuit
D) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking
  • 32. Officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant, claiming they “felt something was wrong.” Evaluate the arrest.
A) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity
B) Valid if officers are experienced
C) Valid if the suspect was still awake
D) Valid because instinct may justify action
  • 33. A valid warrant is served at 1:00 a.m. despite no justification for nighttime service. Evaluate the service.
A) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization
B) Valid if probable cause existed
C) Valid if officers announce their identity
D) Valid since the warrant is lawful
  • 34. Police arrest a person for loitering in a public place at night, claiming it is a crime. Assess the arrest.
A) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official
B) Valid because officers maintain public order
C) Valid only if the area has a curfew
D) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest
  • 35. Officers seize laptops during a search for firearms. Evaluate the seizure.
A) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search
B) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered
C) Valid only if owner does not object
D) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating
  • 36. During a warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto, police only saw the suspect talking to a person involved in a crime. Analyze the procedure.
A) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed
B) Valid if both individuals knew each other
C) Valid because association is enough
D) Valid because one person was a suspect
  • 37. Police search a locked drawer during a consented search of a living room. The homeowner did not specify limits. Evaluate the search.
A) Valid if search is within the same house
B) Valid if evidence is eventually found
C) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments
D) Valid because consent is presumed broad
  • 38. Officers conduct a full-body search of a driver at a checkpoint without any suspicious behavior. Evaluate the action.
A) Valid if checkpoint is legal
B) Valid only if the driver is alone
C) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel
D) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause
  • 39. A complainant submits a sworn statement and evidence to the prosecutor’s office for a criminal offense. What procedural stage is being initiated?
A) Motion for reconsideration
B) Barangay mediation
C) Preliminary investigation filing
D) Inquest review
  • 40. A barangay captain attempts conciliation between neighbors involved in a minor physical injury case. Which mechanism is being used?
A) Police arbitration
B) Judicial dispute resolution
C) Court-annexed mediation
D) Barangay Justice System
  • 41. A suspect arrested without a warrant is brought before the prosecutor within 12 hours. What proceeding must commence?
A) Summary trial
B) Judicial affidavit rule
C) Pre-trial conference
D) Inquest proceeding
  • 42. A party files a criminal complaint directly with the MTC after failing to settle at the barangay level. Which requirement has been met?
A) Prosecutorial endorsement
B) Certification to File Action
C) Direct filing privilege
D) Automatic judicial referral
  • 43. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint for lack of probable cause without requiring counter-affidavits. Analyze the action.
A) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient
B) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required
C) Proper only if the defense requests it
D) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral
  • 44. An inquest officer orders the release of a suspect and converts the inquest into a regular preliminary investigation. Evaluate this decision.
A) Correct only for capital offenses
B) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody
C) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid
D) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects
  • 45. A complaint involving slander is filed directly with the prosecutor without barangay conciliation. Assess the filing.
A) Valid because slander is a private crime
B) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel
C) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation
D) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation
  • 46. During preliminary investigation, the respondent refuses to submit counter-affidavits but asks for outright dismissal. Evaluate this action.
A) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments
B) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence
C) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay
D) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
  • 47. A barangay issues a Certification to File Action even though parties refuse to appear at mediation. Analyze the issuance.
A) Invalid unless arbitrators are present
B) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
C) Invalid because mediation must be completed
D) Valid only after three scheduled hearings
  • 48. A prosecutor conducts preliminary investigation solely based on affidavits without clarificatory hearings. Evaluate the procedure.
A) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary
B) Invalid unless witness examination happens
C) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory
D) Valid only if the accused waives rights
  • 49. Police file a criminal complaint directly in court for a crime requiring preliminary investigation. Assess the filing.
A) Valid if the accused is detained
B) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable
C) Valid if police have personal knowledge
D) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor
  • 50. A suspect is arrested without warrant for an offense punishable only by a fine. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official
B) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt
C) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules
D) Valid if the barangay issues certification
  • 51. Bail is filed for an accused in a non-capital offense. Which is the primary purpose?
A) To excuse the crime
B) To release the accused permanently
C) To ensure the accused appears in court
D) To reduce the penalty
  • 52. During arraignment, the accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Trial begins immediately
B) Judge dismisses the case
C) Bail is automatically granted
D) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled
  • 53. Pre-trial in criminal cases primarily aims to:
A) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
B) Decide on civil liabilities
C) Assign a prosecutor
D) Schedule judgment
  • 54. During trial, the prosecution must present its evidence first because:
A) Witnesses must speak first
B) Defense cannot start immediately
C) Burden of proof lies with the State
D) Judge requires opening statements
  • 55. A judge refuses to hear a petition for bail in a non-capital offense and requires the accused to remain detained. Analyze the judge’s action.
A) Proper because bail is discretionary
B) Proper only if complainant objects
C) Improper because bail is a matter of right
D) Proper if the accused lacks counsel
  • 56. The court arraigned an accused without counsel and without valid waiver. Evaluate the arraignment.
A) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived
B) Valid if court is overloaded
C) Valid since arraignment is formal
D) Valid if the accused understood the charge
  • 57. Pre-trial is scheduled, but the prosecution fails to appear without justification. What should occur?
A) Case must be dismissed
B) Court requires accused to present evidence
C) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires
D) Defense must postpone
  • 58. A judge accepts a guilty plea to a serious offense without conducting a searching inquiry. Assess the plea.
A) Valid if prosecutor agrees
B) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding
C) Valid if freely made
D) Valid if evidence is strong
  • 59. The defense requests a bail hearing, but prosecution claims it is unnecessary because they “believe evidence of guilt is strong.” Evaluate.
A) Acceptable if affidavits are complete
B) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing
C) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude
D) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt
  • 60. During trial, the judge restricts cross-examination to “two questions per witness.” Assess.
A) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination
B) Valid if both parties agree
C) Valid for efficiency
D) Valid in minor offenses
  • 61. The accused was arraigned before the resolution of a pending motion to quash. Evaluate.
A) Proper; arraignment must always proceed
B) Proper if judge wants to expedite
C) Proper only if accused insists
D) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first
  • 62. Court approves plea bargaining even though prosecution objects. Assess.
A) Proper if defense offers restitution
B) Improper; prosecution consent is essential
C) Proper; court has full authority
D) Proper only if offense is light
  • 63. Prosecution introduces a new witness after resting, without giving defense time to prepare. Evaluate.
A) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut
B) Valid if witness is material
C) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime
D) Valid if trial is almost finished
  • 64. During trial, judge repeatedly prevents defense from presenting witnesses, claiming they are “unnecessary.” Evaluate.
A) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong
B) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence
C) Valid to shorten trial
D) Valid only if counsel agrees
  • 65. During direct examination, a prosecutor asks a child witness simple, age-appropriate questions. This illustrates:
A) Improper leading
B) Hearsay objection
C) Proper direct examination considering age
D) Cross-examination
  • 66. During direct examination, a witness hesitates to answer due to trauma. What is correct?
A) Dismiss the witness
B) Ignore and proceed
C) Force the witness
D) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance
  • 67. Defense attorney asks leading questions during direct examination. This is:
A) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
B) Required to expedite trial
C) Always prohibited
D) Always permitted
  • 68. Prosecution presents evidence to refresh a witness’ memory. This occurs?
A) Only for expert witnesses
B) During cross-examination
C) Only during rebuttal
D) During direct examination
  • 69. Witness is asked to describe events chronologically during direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Improper narrative
B) Proper direct examination strategy
C) Hearsay
D) Leading question
  • 70. Child witness testifies with a social worker assisting in simple language. This demonstrates?
A) Violation of impartiality
B) Leading questioning
C) Improper testimony
D) Accommodation for child witnesses
  • 71. During cross-examination, the attorney asks questions to test the witness’ perception and memory. This is?
A) Cross-examination strategy
B) Direct examination
C) Hearsay
D) Improper leading
  • 72. Defense attorney impeaches a witness using prior inconsistent statements. This procedure is:
A) Rebuttal evidence
B) Improper if done in court
C) Direct examination
D) Cross-examination
  • 73. During direct examination, witness refers to a written report to explain events. This is:
A) Leading question
B) Reading testimony verbatim (improper)
C) Cross-examination
D) Refreshing memory (proper)
  • 74. Judge allows child witness to testify with simple props. This is an example of?
A) Leading question
B) Cross-examination tactic
C) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding
D) Improper demonstration
  • 75. Prosecutor asks a child witness to recount events in their own words, without suggesting answers. This demonstrates?
A) Proper direct examination
B) Hearsay
C) Leading question
D) Cross-examination
  • 76. During cross-examination, attorney asks witness to clarify statements made in direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Direct examination
B) Cross-examination technique
C) Improper impeachment
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 77. Child witness becomes scared and refuses to answer. Court allows testimony via closed-circuit TV. This is?
A) Improper
B) Leading question
C) Proper accommodation for child witness protection
D) Cross-examination violation
  • 78. During direct examination, witness is asked only open-ended questions to narrate the incident. This exemplifies:
A) Proper direct examination
B) Leading questions
C) Cross-examination
D) Hearsay
  • 79. Attorney asks witness about contradictory statements made outside court to challenge credibility. This occurs during?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Direct examination
C) Pre-trial conference
D) Cross-examination
  • 80. Child witness testifies in the presence of a familiar adult to reduce stress while questions are simplified. This procedure is
A) Proper witness protection and accommodation
B) Leading question
C) Cross-examination violation
D) Improper coaching
  • 81. Bail primarily exists to?
A) Reduce penalty
B) Guarantee acquittal
C) Replace detention with probation
D) Ensure accused appears during trial
  • 82. During arraignment, accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Trial begins immediately
B) Case dismissed
C) Bail granted automatically
D) Pre-trial is scheduled
  • 83. Pre-trial aims to?
A) Assign a prosecutor
B) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
C) Schedule judgment
D) Decide civil liabilities
  • 84. Cross-examination of witnesses primarily tests?
A) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility
B) Procedural technicalities
C) Prosecutor’s theory
D) Judge’s discretion
  • 85. Child witnesses may testify using props or closed-circuit television to?
A) Influence testimony
B) Make trial faster
C) Replace direct questioning
D) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma
  • 86. Leading questions are generally allowed during cross-examination to
A) Test credibility and impeach statements
B) Violate rights
C) Suggest answers to witnesses
D) Accelerate trial
  • 87. Direct examination should be conducted with?
A) Closed-ended questions only
B) Open-ended questions
C) Leading questions only
D) Hearsay questions
  • 88. In impeachment, prior inconsistent statements are used to?
A) Support witness credibility
B) Challenge witness credibility
C) End trial
D) Confirm hearsay
  • 89. Witness testimony may be refreshed by?
A) Leading questions
B) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts
C) Replacing witness
D) Oral suggestion
  • 90. Proper cross-examination allows?
A) Testing witness statements and credibility
B) Introducing new evidence without notice
C) Unlimited questioning without relevance
D) Skipping procedural rules
  • 91. Child witness testifies with assistance to?
A) Avoid cross-examination
B) Protect emotional well-being
C) Violate impartiality
D) Influence verdict
  • 92. Judge ensures searching inquiry during plea to verify
A) Guilt
B) Sentence reduction
C) Plea bargaining
D) Voluntariness and understanding
  • 93. Pre-trial ensures
A) Verdict announcement
B) Trial starts immediately
C) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
D) Witness selection only
  • 94. Arraignment involves
A) Bail denial
B) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea
C) Trial on the merits
D) Evidence evaluation
  • 95. Arrest without a warrant is allowed when?
A) Accused looks guilty
B) Ordinance requires detention
C) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit
D) Officer has mere suspicion
  • 96. Search and seizure without a warrant is valid if?
A) Consent is given
B) Officer feels probable cause
C) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist
D) Any officer orders it
  • 97. Inquest proceeding occurs when?
A) Case is dismissed
B) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours
C) Bail is granted
D) Pre-trial is conducted
  • 98. Preliminary investigation determines?
A) Bail amount
B) Probable cause
C) Sentence
D) Guilt
  • 99. Barangay Justice System aims to?
A) Conduct arrest
B) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts
C) Replace courts
D) Collect fines
  • 100. Witness presentation, including child witnesses, must be conducted using?
A) Leading questions only
B) Coercion
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods
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