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CLJ set A - Quiz
Contributed by: ESCARIO
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Philippine National Police (PNP)
B) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
C) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
D) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BFP
B) NBI
C) PNP
D) BJMP
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Decide the proper penalty
C) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Conduct trial
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) PNP detention cell
B) Bureau of Corrections facility
C) BJMP jail
D) Prosecutor’s Office
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Double jeopardy
B) Eminent domain
C) Police power
D) Due process
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Miranda rights
B) Property rights
C) Political rights only
D) Voting rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Probable cause
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Conviction
D) Written confession
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to travel
D) Right to suffrage
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Amparo
B) Writ of Execution
C) Writ of Certiorari
D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Quasi-offenses
B) Dolo
C) Culpa
D) Mala prohibita
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Retroactivity
B) Generality
C) Territoriality
D) Prospectivity
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Impossible crimes
B) Consummated felonies
C) Intentional felonies
D) Culpable felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Conspiracy
B) Treachery
C) Recidivism
D) Proposal
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Accessory
B) Accomplice
C) Principal
D) Witness
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Accomplice
B) Co-conspirator
C) Accessory
D) Principal
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Presence at the crime scene
B) Mere knowledge of the crime
C) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
D) Concealing evidence after the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Frustrated
B) Attempted
C) Impossible
D) Consummated
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Consummated
B) Attempted
C) Impossible
D) Frustrated
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Reclusion perpetua
B) Destierro
C) Prision correccional
D) Arresto menor
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Treachery
B) Recidivism
C) Voluntary surrender
D) Insanity
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Dwelling
B) Treachery
C) Cruelty
D) Habituality
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Revenge
B) Lack of sufficient provocation
C) Intent to kill
D) Relationship
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Commits another crime after final conviction
B) Repeats the same crime before conviction
C) Uses a deadly weapon
D) Escapes during trial
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Qualifying circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Concealment
B) Death of the convict
C) Recidivism
D) Escape from prison
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Damages only
B) Criminal liability
C) Subsidiary liability only
D) Civil liability only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Civil liability only
B) Criminal liability
C) Political rights
D) Administrative liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Evidence
B) Property rights
C) Criminal liability and penalty
D) Civil liability only
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Homicide
B) Parricide
C) Murder
D) Infanticide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Infanticide
B) Homicide
C) Parricide
D) Murder
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Homicide
B) Infanticide
C) Murder
D) Parricide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Slight physical injuries
B) Grave threats
C) Grave coercion
D) Serious physical injuries
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
B) Firearm is used in robbery
C) Firearm is possessed illegally
D) Firearm is displayed publicly
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Murder
B) Physical injuries
C) Duel
D) Homicide
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Murder
B) Parricide
C) Homicide
D) Death under exceptional circumstances
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Estafa
B) Robbery
C) Malicious mischief
D) Theft
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Violence or intimidation
B) Public officer participation
C) Forgery
D) Abuse of confidence
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Malversation
B) Estafa
C) Theft
D) Robbery
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Arson
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Malicious mischief
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Public order
B) Liberty
C) Honor
D) Chastity
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Prosecutor conducting inquest
B) Judge issuing warrant
C) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
D) Any private person
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
B) Defaming another person
C) Concealing a crime
D) Taking property
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Public scandal
B) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
C) Falsification
D) Taking property through deceit
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Fundamental law of the State
B) Public order
C) Persons
D) Chastity
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Trespasser entering property
B) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
C) A tenant refusing to vacate
D) Private individual entering a house
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Falsifying documents
B) Taking property
C) Defaming another person
D) Causing disturbance in public places
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
B) Commits homicide
C) Falsifies testimony
D) Escapes detention
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Physical assault
B) Writing or similar means
C) Spoken words only
D) Mere gestures
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Libel
B) Estafa
C) Slander
D) Perjury
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
B) Married woman having intercourse with another man
C) Public officer abusing authority
D) Single man seducing a minor
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Married man alone
B) Single woman only
C) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
D) Widow remarrying early
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Cohabiting scandalously
B) Living together without marriage
C) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
D) Seducing a minor
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Swearing falsely
B) Publishing defamatory articles
C) Threatening another
D) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Dangerous Drugs Act
B) Cybercrime Law
C) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
D) Revised Penal Code only
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Local Government Code
B) Safe Spaces Act
C) Juvenile Justice Act
D) Anti-Terrorism Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Human trafficking
B) Illegal detention
C) Drug trafficking
D) Gender-based sexual harassment
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Robbery
B) Human trafficking
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Libel
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Suspicion
B) Reasonable doubt
C) Doubt
D) Probability
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Preponderance of evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Prima facie evidence
D) Substantial evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
B) Written contracts
C) Fingerprints
D) Physical objects
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Oral testimony
B) Demonstrations
C) Written instruments and documents
D) Tangible objects
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) There is only one circumstance
B) There is no eyewitness
C) The accused confesses
D) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Material only
B) Competent only
C) Relevant and competent
D) Relevant only
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Conclusive
B) Preferred
C) Inadmissible
D) Admissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Equipoise doctrine
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Res gestae doctrine
D) Plain view doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Character evidence rule
B) Opinion rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Conclusive
C) Mandatory
D) Admissible
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Character evidence rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Marked
B) Copied
C) Attached to records
D) Appreciated by the court
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Judge only
B) Prosecutor only
C) Witness only
D) Adverse party
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Marking
B) Authentication
C) Identification
D) Certification
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A search warrant
B) A subpoena
C) A judicial notice
D) A sworn written statement
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Denial and alibi
D) Documentary evidence
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Public opinion
B) Defense evidence
C) Police report alone
D) Its own evidence
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) RTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) MTC
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) DOJ
D) Supreme Court
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Family cases
B) Election offenses
C) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
D) Drug cases
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Petition only
B) Appeal only
C) Memorandum only
D) Complaint or Information
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 1 year
B) 10 years
C) 6 months
D) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Guilty
B) Dangerous
C) Liable
D) Innocent until proven guilty
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Delay in proceedings
B) Illegal search
C) Excessive bail
D) Double jeopardy
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to property
B) Right to bail
C) Right to travel
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Conviction
B) Probable cause
C) Rumor
D) Suspicion
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) Escapee arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The witnesses
B) The place to be searched and things to be seized
C) The penalty
D) The prosecutor
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Allowed only in drug cases
B) Invalid always
C) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
D) An exception to the warrant requirement
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Probable cause
B) Damages
C) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Exact penalty
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Penalty to be imposed
B) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
D) Civil liability
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Prosecutor
B) Judge
C) Police officer
D) Barangay captain
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
B) Reduce penalty
C) Acquit the accused
D) Terminate the case
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Issuance of warrant
B) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
C) Bail hearing
D) Cross-examination
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Sentencing only
B) Arrest only
C) Valid arraignment and plea
D) Filing of complaint only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
B) Has not been arraigned
C) Is a minor
D) Refuses to hire counsel
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The judge only
B) The party presenting the witness
C) Adverse counsel
D) The clerk of court
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Introduce judgment
B) Dismiss the case
C) Repeat testimony
D) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Has written testimony
B) Is related to the victim
C) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
D) Is at least 18 years old
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Escapee arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
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