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CRIM 3: Human Behavior And Victimology - Quiz
Contributed by: Edradan
(Original author: Drian B.)
  • 1. This term describes the idea that specific thoughts, behaviors and emotions are considered deviant when they are unacceptable or not common in society.
A) Deviance
B) Danger
C) Dysfunction
D) Distress
  • 2. This term involves dangerous or violent behavior directed at the individual, or others in the environment. An example of dangerous behavior that may suggest a psychological disorder is engaging in suicidal activity
A) Dysfunction
B) Distress
C) Danger
D) Deviance
  • 3. This term accounts for negative feelings by the individual with the disorder. He or she may feel deeply troubled and affected by their illness.
A) Deviance
B) Dysfunction
C) Danger
D) Distress
  • 4. This term involves maladaptive behavior that impairs the individual's ability to perform normal daily functions, such as getting ready for work in the morning, or driving a car
A) Dysfunction
B) Danger
C) Deviance
D) Distress
  • 5. is something deviating from the normal or differing from the typical, is a subjectively defined behaviors characteristic, assigned to those with rare or dysfunctional conditions.
A) Danger
B) Deviance
C) Abnormal Behavior
D) Psychopathology
  • 6. is the scientific study of mental disorders, including efforts to understand their genetic, biological, psychological, and social causes, effective classification schemes (nosology); course across all stages of development; manifestations, and treatment.
A) Psychopathology
B) Abnormal behavior
C) Anxiety
D) Mental Disorder
  • 7. The word abnormal means away from the norm.
A) Personal Distress
B) Deviation from Statistical Norm
C) Deviation from Social Norm
D) intelligence
  • 8. It is statistically abnormal for a person get a score about 145 on an IQ test or to get a score below 55, but only the lowest score is considered abnormal.
A) Maladaptive to Society
B) Deviation from Statistical Norm
C) Maladaptive Behavior
D) Intelligence
  • 9. A person who is anxious all the time or has ahigh level of anxiety and someone who almost never feels anxiety are all considered to be abnormal.
A) Intelligence
B) Personal Distress
C) Deviation from Statistical Norm
D) Anxiety
  • 10. Every culture has certain standards for acceptable behavior, behavior that deviates from that standard is considered to be abnormal behavior
A) Maladaptive to One's self
B) Deviation from Social Norm
C) Deviation from Statistical Norm
D) Personal Distress
  • 11. This third criterion is how the behavior affects the well- being of the individual and/or social group. A man who attempts suicide or a paranoid individual who tries to assassinate national leaders are illustrations under this criterion. The two aspects of maladaptive behavior are: (nahihirapan mag adopt or nahihirapan mag adjust sa society)
A) Maladaptive to Society
B) Deviation from Statistical Norm
C) Maladaptive Behavior
D) Maladaptive to One's self
  • 12. It refers to the inability of a person to reach goals or to adapt the demands of life.
A) Personal Distress
B) Maladaptive to Society-
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Maladaptive Behavior
  • 13. It refers to a person's obstruction or disruption to social group functioning.
A) Maladaptive to One's self
B) Deviation from Social Norm
C) Personal Distress
D) Maladaptive to Society
  • 14. The fourth criterion considers abnormality in terms of the individual's subjective feelings, personal distress, rather than his behavior. Most people commonly diagnosed as mentally ill.
A) Personal Distress
B) Maladaptive to One's self
C) Maladaptive Behavior
D) Intelligence
  • 15. is a broad term used to group physical and psychological symptoms that cause abnormal thoughts and behaviors.
A) Deviance
B) Abnormal Behavior
C) Mental Disorder
D) Mental Retardation
  • 16. a condition of limited ability in which an individual has a low Intelligence Quotient (IQ), usually below 70 on a traditional intelligence test, and has difficulty adapting to everyday life: he/she first exhibited these characteristics during the so-called developmental period by age 18.
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Profound Mental Retardation
C) Mental Retardation (MR)
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 17. About 10% of the mentally retarded population is considered moderately retarded. Moderately retarded persons have IQ scores ranging from 35-55. They can carry out work and self- care tasks with moderate supervision.
A) Mental Retardation
B) Severe Mental Retardation
C) Moderate Mental Retardation
D) Profound Mental Retardation
  • 18. About 3-4% of the mentally retarded population is severely retarded. Severely retarded persons have 1Q scores of 20-40. They may master very basic self-care skills and some communication skills
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Mild Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 19. Only 1-2% of the mentally retarded population is classified as profoundly retarded. Profoundly retarded individuals have IQ scores under 20-25
A) Profound Mental Retardation
B) Moderate Mental Retardation
C) Severe Mental Retardation
D) Mild Mental Retardation
  • 20. reflects a very general mental capability that, among other things, involves the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly and learn from experience.
A) Human intelligence
B) Criminal behavior
C) Mental Disorder
D) Mental retardation
  • 21. CRIMINAL LAW AND INTELLIGENCE What is the McNaughton (M'Naghten) Rule?
A) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1853, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
B) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1833, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
C) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1873, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
D) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1843, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
  • 22. What is the Durham Rule?
A) an accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act is the product of mental disease or mental defect.
B) Any person who has committed a crime while the said person was imbecile or insane during the commission.
C) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
D) substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
  • 23. What is ALI Substantial Capacity Test?
A) known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, as amended by Republic Act 10630, raised the criminal exemption from 9 to 15 years old
B) The new rule stated that a person is not responsible for his criminal act if, as a result of the mental disease or defect, he lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
C) Some States added to their statutes this doctrine which is also known as "irresistible impulse" recognizing some ill individuals may respond correctly but may be unable to control their behavior
D) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
  • 24. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.
A) Repression
B) Rationalization
C) Delusion of Persecution
D) Self-actualization
  • 25. Which Freudian personality component operates according to the pleasure principle?
A) Ego
B) Id
C) Conscience
D) Superego
  • 26. Which personality component follows the reality principle in Freud's theory?
A) Conscience
B) Superego
C) Id
D) Ego
  • 27. Which Freudian component represents internalized moral standards?
A) Superego
B) Ego
C) Id
D) Conscience
  • 28. What is a phobia?
A) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
B) A temporary lack of motivation
C) A form of criminal punishment
D) A normal preference for privacy
  • 29. What does PTSD stand for?
A) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder.
B) Psychological Treatment and Safety Diagnosis
C) Personal Trauma and Stress Disorder
D) Persistent Thought and Sleep Disturbance
  • 30. Which is a common possible response to a traumatic event?
A) Permanent loss of all emotions
B) Intrusive memories or nightmares
C) Improved memory in every case
D) Guaranteed violent behavior
  • 31. What is a defense mechanism?
A) A psychological process that helps manage anxiety or conflict
B) A method of physical punishment
C) A legal argument
D) A police protection strategy
  • 32. What is a personality trait?
A) A legal responsibility
B) A relatively enduring characteristic of a person
C) A single temporary emotion
D) A physical injury
  • 33. What is an important principle when assessing abnormal behavior?
A) cultural differences as proof of illness
B) Consider symptoms, context, distress, and impairment
C) Diagnose someone based on one unusual action
D) Assume every unusual behavior is criminal
  • 34. Which statement about mental illness and criminality is most accurate?
A) Mental illness automatically removes legal responsibility
B) Every person with a mental disorder is dangerous
C) Mental illness does not automatically mean a person is violent or criminal
D) Mental illness always causes criminal behavior
  • 35. Which theory explains behavior through rewards and punishments?
A) Humanistic theory
B) Operant conditioning
C) Trait theory
D) Psychoanalytic theory
  • 36. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Unconscious dreams only
B) Physical appearance
C) Genetic inheritance alone
D) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
  • 37. What is differential association theory primarily concerned with?
A) Learning criminal behavior through interaction with others
B) Punishment as the only cause of crime
C) Personality development during infancy
D) Biological differences between people
  • 38. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Robert Merton
B) Edwin Lemert
C) Edwin H. Sutherland
D) Travis Hirschi
  • 39. What does strain theory examine?
A) How physical injuries heal
B) How fingerprints identify offenders
C) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
D) How witnesses remember faces
  • 40. What is labeling theory concerned with?
A) physical causes of injury
B) The biological origins of personality
C) The punishment for every offense
D) How societal labels can influence identity and behavior
  • 41. Which theory emphasizes the importance of bonds to family, school, and society in discouraging crime?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Social control theory
C) Psychoanalytic theory
D) Trait theory
  • 42. There is dysfunctional conflict if conflict disrupts, hinders job performance, and upsets personal psychological functioning
A) Functional Conflict
B) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
C) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
D) Dysfunctional Conflict
  • 43. There is functional conflict if conflict is responsive and innovative aiding in creativity and viability.
A) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
B) Dysfunctional Conflict
C) Functional Conflic
D) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
  • 44. What is the main idea of routine activity theory?
A) Crime opportunities arise when a motivated offender, suitable target, and absence of a capable guardian converge
B) Punishment always prevents crime
C) Crime is determined entirely by birth
D) Every crime is caused by mental illness
  • 45. Study or do the dishes. I don't want this and I don't want that. A woman with an unwanted pregnancy may be morally opposed by abortion
A) Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict
B) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
C) Approach-Approach Conflict
D) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
  • 46. What is the main purpose of studying criminal behavior in criminology?
A) To excuse every unlawful act
B) To assume everyone will commit a crime
C) To justify discrimination against suspects
D) To understand possible causes and support prevention and rehabilitation
  • 47. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
B) Physical appearance
C) Genetic inheritance alone
D) Unconscious dreams only
  • 48. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Edwin H. Sutherland
B) Edwin Lemert
C) Robert Merton
D) Hirschi
  • 49. What does strain theory examine?
A) How physical injuries heal
B) How fingerprints identify offenders
C) How witnesses remember faces
D) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
  • 50. What is the purpose of offender rehabilitation in relation to victim and community safety?
A) To support behavioral change and reduce the risk of reoffending
B) To transfer responsibility for crime to the victim
C) To guarantee that reoffending becomes impossible
D) To eliminate the need for accountability
  • 51. Why should crime victims be treated without discrimination?
A) So investigators can avoid legal procedures
B) To uphold dignity, equality, and fair access to services.
C) So that only selected victims receive assistance
D) So victims will always agree with authorities
  • 52. Which is an example of cybervictimization?
A) Attending an online class
B) Reading a public news report
C) Receiving a routine school announcement
D) Being targeted by online harassment or unauthorized disclosure of private information
  • 53. What is an appropriate response to a victim experiencing severe anxiety after a crime?
A) Tell the victim to forget the incident
B) Force the victim to confront the offender
C) Offer support and, when appropriate, referral to a qualified mental health professional
D) Assume the victim is lying
  • 54. What is the purpose of victim impact statements?
A) To replace all physical evidence
B) To guarantee a particular sentence
C) To allow witnesses to decide guilt
D) To explain how an offense affected the victim, subject to applicable court procedures
  • 55. Which is an example of community-based crime prevention?
A) Ignoring suspicious safety concerns
B) Publicly identifying all crime victims
C) Encouraging people to take revenge
D) Organizing lawful neighborhood safety and awareness programs
  • 56. What is restorative justice primarily concerned with?
A) Increasing punishment in every case
B) Preventing offenders from accepting responsibility
C) Addressing harm, accountability, and appropriate opportunities for repair
D) Removing victims from the justice process
  • 57. What is a safety plan?
A) A record of a victim's personality traits
B) A practical plan to reduce danger and identify support resources
C) A list of criminal penalties
D) A document that guarantees an offender's arrest
  • 58. What does confidentiality mean in victim assistance?
A) Refusing to provide any assistance
B) Sharing information with friends
C) Hiding every crime from authorities
D) Protecting private information and disclosing it only when authorized or legally required
  • 59. What is the best way to respond when a victim discloses abuse?
A) Blame the victim for the incident
B) Listen respectfully, take the disclosure seriously, and explain available help
C) Immediately post the story online
D) Promise a guaranteed conviction
  • 60. should an investigator do when interviewing a child victim?
A) Use threatening questions to obtain answers
B) Allow unauthorized people to observe the interview
C) Publicly disclose the child's identity
D) Follow child-sensitive procedures and protect the child's welfare
  • 61. Which law penalizes photo and video voyeurism in the Philippines?
A) Republic Act No. 6981
B) Republic Act No. 9262
C) Republic Act No. 9995
D) Republic Act No. 7610
  • 62. Which law established a comprehensive program for children in conflict with the law and juvenile justice?
A) Republic Act No. 9165
B) Republic Act No. 7877
C) Republic Act No. 9344, as amended by RA 10630
D) Republic Act No. 9262
  • 63. What is a trauma-informed approach?
A) Recognizing trauma's effects and avoiding practices that may cause further harm
B) Assuming every victim reacts identically
C) Requiring victims to describe every detail
D) Ignoring emotional reactions
  • 64. What is the first priority when assisting a victim in immediate danger?
A) Completing paperwork
B) Protecting the victim's immediate safety
C) Interviewing every witness
D) Preparing a court presentation
  • 65. What is the main objective of victim support services?
A) To guarantee conviction in every case
B) To promote safety, recovery, information, and access to assistance
C) To force victims to forgive offenders
D) To prevent victims from reporting crimes
  • 66. Which is a possible consequence of victimization?
A) Every victim loses the ability to work
B) Physical injury, emotional distress, or financial loss
C) Every victim becomes an offender
D) Every victim develops a mental disorder
  • 67. What is victim restitution?
A) A form of community gossip
B) A psychological diagnosis
C) An order requiring an offender to compensate a victim for eligible losses
D) A method of witness intimidation
  • 68. what is a victimization survey used for?
A) Measuring the personality of judges
B) Replacing every police investigation
C) Determining guilt without trial
D) Gathering information about people's experiences of crime, including
  • 69. What does the term victim precipitation traditionally examine?
A) The amount of compensation received
B) Whether victim-related actions or interactions played a role in the sequence of events
C) The number of police officers at a scene
D) The sentence imposed on an offender
  • 70. A which is an example of indirect victimization?
A) A police officer completing a report
B) A thief losing stolen property
C) A judge issuing a ruling
D) family member experiencing distress after a loved one is murdered
  • 71. What is a direct victim?
A) A person who prosecutes an offender
B) A person who directly suffers harm from an offense
C) A person who investigates a crime
D) A person who reads about a crime
  • 72. What is revictimization?
A) Receiving compensation
B) Experiencing victimization again
C) Reporting an incident
D) Attending a court hearing
  • 73. What is secondary victimization?
A) Harm caused by social stigma after a crime
B) Harm directly resulting from the criminal act
C) Harm caused by media reports
D) Harm caused only by court proceedings
  • 74. What is victimization?
A) The process through which a person experiences harm or becomes a victim
B) The classification of criminal evidence
C) The rehabilitation of a convicted person
D) The process of sentencing an offender
  • 75. Who is commonly credited with introducing the term victimology?
A) Edwin Sutherland
B) Robert Merton
C) Cesare Lombroso
D) Benjamin Mendelsohn
  • 76. What is victimology?
A) The study of police administration
B) The study of prison architecture
C) The study of victims, victimization, and its consequences
D) The study of fingerprints
  • 77. What is personality?
A) A person's permanent physical appearance
B) A person's educational attainment
C) A person's social status only
D) A person's characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving
  • 78. Which process involves learning society's norms and values?
A) Frustration
B) Isolation
C) Regression
D) Socialization
  • 79. What is motivation?
A) A process that directs and energizes behavior
B) A person's physical appearance
C) An inherited physical trait
D) A type of punishment
  • 80. Which term describes the ability to understand another person's feelings?
A) Aggression
B) Prejudice
C) Empathy
D) Conformity
  • 81. What is perception?
A) Punishing inappropriate behavior
B) Memorizing every event
C) Interpreting sensory information
D) Controlling another person
  • 82. Which psychologist is associated with social learning theory?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Sigmund Freud
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Albert Bandura
  • 83. What is reinforcement?
A) A method of avoiding all social contact
B) A type of memory loss
C) A permanent personality disorder
D) A consequence that increases the likelihood of a behavior
  • 84. Which term refers to behavior that violates accepted social norms?
A) Cooperation
B) Deviance
C) Adaptation
D) Socialization
  • 85. What is aggression?
A) Helping a person in need
B) Showing sympathy toward others
C) Following a lawful instruction
D) Behavior intended to harm another person
  • 86. What is frustration?
A) A state arising when goals are blocked
B) Complete emotional stability
C) A form of social reward
D) A learned academic skill
  • 87. What is conformity?
A) Rejecting every social rule
B) Acting without awareness
C) Adjusting behavior to group expectations
D) Diagnosing a psychological disorder
  • 88. What is cognitive development primarily concerned with?
A) Changes in criminal penalties
B) Changes in legal procedures
C) Changes in thinking, learning, and reasoning
D) Changes in physical appearance only
  • 89. Which theory emphasizes personal growth and human potential?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Conflict theory
C) Humanistic theory
D) Psychoanalytic theory
  • 90. What is heredity?
A) Acquiring knowledge from school
B) Learning social expectations
C) Transmission of genetic characteristics from parents
D) Learning through punishment
  • 91. What is the primary focus of developmental psychology?
A) Crime-scene processing
B) Criminal sentencing
C) Changes in people across their lifespan
D) Police organizational structure
  • 92. What is a social role?
A) Expected behavior associated with a particular position
B) A medical diagnosis
C) A person's genetic makeup
D) A criminal investigation technique
  • 93. Which term refers to the process of remembering information?
A) Memory
B) Conditioning
C) Motivation
D) Perception
  • 94. What is the nature-versus-nurture debate about?
A) Genetic influences versus environmental influences on behavior
B) Victims versus witnesses
C) Police versus courts
D) Punishment versus rehabilitation
  • 95. What is a phobia?
A) A normal preference for privacy
B) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
C) form of criminal punishment
D) temporary lack of motivation
  • 96. What is displacement in psychology?
A) Learning through observation
B) Forgetting every childhood experience
C) Accepting responsibility for a mistake
D) Redirecting emotions from their original source to another target
  • 97. What is projection?
A) Avoiding a dangerous location
B) Copying a successful person's behavior
C) Developing a new habit
D) Attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person
  • 98. What is emotional intelligence?
A) The ability to control other people
B) The ability to avoid every conflict
C) The ability to recognize and manage emotions
D) The ability to memorize laws quickly
  • 99. Which term describes learning by observing another person's behavior?
A) Displacement
B) Observational learning
C) Repression
D) Extinction
  • 100. Which concept refers to a person's belief in their ability to perform a task successfully?
A) Frustration
B) Self-efficacy
C) Conformity
D) Self-esteem
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